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NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026 Notification Out for 135 Vacancies | Apply Online

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NTPC Limited, India’s largest integrated power utility and a Government of India Maharatna enterprise, has released Advertisement No. 10/26, inviting online applications from experienced engineering professionals for the post of Deputy Manager at the E4 level, across three disciplines – Electrical, Mechanical, and Control & Instrumentation (C&I). A total of 135 vacancies have been notified under this recruitment drive. The online application portal is open from 06.08.2026 to 20.08.2026, and only the online mode of application will be accepted by the organisation.

This article, brought to you by Manabadi, has been prepared to give readers a single, self-contained reference covering every detail released so far about NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026, so that no further navigation to other pages is required to understand the opportunity.

NTPC’s growth story forms the backdrop of this recruitment. The organisation is currently operating with an installed capacity of over 91 GW, and it has set an ambitious target of reaching a total installed capacity of 149 GW by 2032. To support this scale of expansion, the company is strengthening its engineering leadership by inducting experienced professionals directly at the Deputy Manager (E4) level, rather than at entry-level grades. This makes the current drive particularly significant for mid-career engineers who already have relevant post-qualification experience in the power sector or allied industries.

Readers are advised that this recruitment is meant strictly for experienced professionals and not for freshers. Candidates who do not have the requisite years of relevant experience in their discipline should not expect to be considered under this drive, since NTPC has explicitly positioned this as a lateral, experience-based induction rather than a graduate/campus-style recruitment.

Organisation Overview

NTPC Limited is described in its own recruitment notice as a Government of India Enterprise and describes itself as India’s largest integrated power utility. The organisation is present across the entire power generation value chain – from fuel/coal linkage and thermal generation to renewable energy, hydro, and downstream power distribution-linked activities. NTPC positions this recruitment drive under the tagline “Power Your Career with NTPC – India’s Energy Leader,” reflecting its stated intent to build long-term engineering talent to support its capacity expansion roadmap toward 149 GW.

Particular Detail
Organisation Name NTPC Limited
Nature of Organisation Government of India Enterprise (Maharatna PSU)
Advertisement Number 10/26
Post Notified Deputy Manager
Grade E4
Disciplines Electrical, Mechanical, Control & Instrumentation (C&I)
Total Vacancies 135
Current Installed Capacity Over 91 GW
Target Capacity by 2032 149 GW
Application Mode Online only
Application Start Date 06.08.2026
Application Closing Date 20.08.2026
Official Website careers.ntpc.co.in / www.ntpc.co.in

NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026 – Important Dates

The application window for this recruitment drive is comparatively short, spanning just about two weeks. Candidates are strongly advised not to wait until the last date, since technical glitches, document upload issues, or payment gateway delays are common on portals during the final 24–48 hours of a recruitment window.

Event Date
Notification Release Date 05.08.2026 / 06.08.2026 (as per advertisement release)
Online Application Start Date 06.08.2026
Online Application Closing Date 20.08.2026
Mode of Application Online only
Corrigendum/Addendum Updates To be published only on the official NTPC website

Post-wise Vacancy Details

NTPC has notified a combined total of 135 vacancies for the Deputy Manager post, distributed across three engineering disciplines as detailed in the table below. This vacancy distribution is taken directly from the official short notification and should be treated as final unless a corrigendum is issued.

Name of the Post Discipline Number of Vacancies
Deputy Manager (Electrical) Electrical 40
Deputy Manager (Mechanical) Mechanical 55
Deputy Manager (C&I) Control & Instrumentation 40
Total – 135

It may be observed that Mechanical discipline carries the highest number of vacancies (55), followed by Electrical and C&I, which carry an equal number of vacancies (40 each). Candidates should note that this vacancy breakup does not currently indicate category-wise (UR/OBC/SC/ST/EWS/PwBD) distribution or any reservation roster, as that level of detail has not been released in the short advertisement. Category-wise vacancy distribution, if applicable, is typically published in the detailed advertisement on the NTPC careers portal.

Grade and Pay Scale

All three Deputy Manager posts notified under this advertisement fall under a single, common grade and pay scale, as confirmed in the official notice.

Particular Detail
Grade E4
Pay Scale Type IDA (Industrial Dearness Allowance)
Pay Scale Range ₹70,000 – ₹2,00,000
Applicable Allowances As per NTPC rules (in addition to basic pay scale)

The pay scale of ₹70,000–₹2,00,000 under the IDA structure is applicable uniformly across Electrical, Mechanical, and C&I disciplines at the E4 level. It should be noted that this is the basic pay band, and actual gross monthly emoluments will be higher once allowances such as Dearness Allowance, House Rent Allowance, perks, and other benefits admissible as per NTPC’s internal service rules are added. The exact perks and benefits structure has not been detailed in the short notification and is expected to be part of the detailed advertisement.

Eligibility Criteria (Educational Qualification & Experience)

This is the section where readers must exercise the most caution, since the official short notification uploaded by NTPC explicitly states that detailed eligibility criteria, qualification criteria, and experience criteria are available only on the official website (careers.ntpc.co.in) and are not reproduced in full in the short notice itself.

Based on the general pattern followed by NTPC for E4-level Deputy Manager recruitment of experienced professionals, and cross-referenced with publicly available secondary reporting on this specific advertisement, the broad qualification requirement is understood to be as follows. Readers must verify every point below against the official detailed advertisement before applying, as exact wording, minimum percentage requirements, and experience slabs can vary by discipline and have not been confirmed by NTPC’s own short notice.

Discipline Indicative Educational Qualification
Deputy Manager (Electrical) B.E./B.Tech in Electrical or Electrical & Electronics Engineering from a recognised university/institute
Deputy Manager (Mechanical) B.E./B.Tech in Mechanical Engineering from a recognised university/institute
Deputy Manager (C&I) B.E./B.Tech in Control & Instrumentation / Instrumentation / Instrumentation & Control / Electronics or equivalent discipline from a recognised university/institute

Experience Requirement: The recruitment is explicitly meant for “experienced professionals,” meaning candidates are expected to hold a minimum number of years of relevant post-qualification experience in their respective engineering discipline, most likely gained in a power plant, heavy industry, or similar core-sector environment. The exact number of years of experience required for E4-level entry, along with whether the experience must be at a specific prior grade/designation, has not been disclosed in the short notification and is treated as unverified information for the purposes of this article.

Age Limit: The upper age limit applicable for E4-grade lateral entry has not been specified in the short notice. NTPC typically prescribes discipline-and-grade-specific age limits for such experienced-hire drives, with relaxations for reserved categories as per Government of India norms. Candidates are advised to check the detailed advertisement for the exact age bracket applicable to this recruitment before proceeding.

Important: Since NTPC itself has directed candidates to its official website for the full eligibility criteria, no percentage cut-off, exact experience-in-years figure, or age limit should be assumed or treated as confirmed until verified on careers.ntpc.co.in. Manabadi will update this article as soon as the detailed advertisement is officially published and cross-verified.

Selection Process

The short notification does not spell out the selection methodology in detail. Based on the standard pattern followed by NTPC for similar experienced-professional Deputy Manager (E4) recruitment drives, the process is generally understood to involve the following broad stages, though this must be treated as indicative and subject to official confirmation:

  • Screening/Shortlisting of applications based on eligibility criteria (qualification and experience)
  • Personal Interview of shortlisted candidates
  • Document Verification of candidates recommended after interview

Candidates should note that some recruitment drives of this nature also include a written/online test stage before the interview, depending on the number of applications received. Whether such a stage applies to Advt. No. 10/26 has not been confirmed in the official short notice, and readers should not assume either the presence or absence of a written test until the detailed advertisement is checked.

Application Fee

The short notification does not mention any application fee details. Application fee structures for NTPC recruitment drives typically vary by category (UR/OBC/EWS candidates generally pay a nominal fee, while SC/ST/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen/Departmental candidates are usually exempted), and the exact fee amount and payment mode (net banking, debit/credit card, UPI) will be specified in the detailed advertisement. Readers should check the official portal at the time of registration for accurate, category-wise fee information rather than relying on assumptions from past NTPC drives.

How to Apply for NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026

Applications must be submitted online only; no offline, postal, or email applications will be entertained by NTPC for this recruitment. The broad application procedure is outlined below for the convenience of applicants.

  • Visit the official NTPC careers portal at careers.ntpc.co.in, or go to the “Careers” section on www.ntpc.co.in.
  • Locate the notification for “Deputy Manager Recruitment – Advertisement No. 10/26” on the homepage or notifications section.
  • Read the detailed advertisement carefully, paying close attention to the eligibility criteria, qualification criteria, and experience criteria applicable to the specific discipline being applied for.
  • Complete the new candidate registration using a valid, active mobile number and email ID, since all further communication is typically routed through these channels.
  • Log in and fill out the online application form with accurate personal, educational, and professional/experience details.
  • Upload the required documents in the prescribed format and size, which generally include a recent photograph, signature, and relevant educational/experience certificates.
  • Pay the applicable application fee, if applicable to the candidate’s category, through the available online payment modes.
  • Review the entire application form carefully before final submission, since corrections after submission may not be permitted.
  • Submit the application and download/print the confirmation page or application form for future reference and for use at later stages such as interview or document verification.

Application Window: 06.08.2026 to 20.08.2026.

Documents Likely Required

While the exact document checklist is provided only on the official application portal, applicants are generally expected to keep the following documents scanned and ready before starting the online application, based on standard NTPC recruitment practice:

  • Recent passport-size photograph (as per prescribed specifications)
  • Scanned signature
  • Educational qualification certificates and mark sheets (degree, provisional certificate, etc.)
  • Experience certificates from current/previous employer(s), clearly indicating designation, discipline, and duration of service
  • Category certificate (SC/ST/OBC-NCL/EWS), if applicable
  • PwBD certificate, if applicable
  • No Objection Certificate (NOC) from current employer, if the candidate is presently employed, especially relevant for candidates from other PSUs or government departments
  • Valid ID proof and any other document specifically mentioned in the detailed advertisement

Why Consider NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026?

For engineering professionals currently working in the power, energy, or heavy industrial sector, this recruitment presents a notable opportunity for several reasons:

  • NTPC is India’s largest integrated power utility, offering exposure across thermal, hydro, and renewable energy verticals.
  • The organisation has committed to an ambitious expansion target of 149 GW by 2032, up from its current capacity of over 91 GW, indicating sustained long-term project and career opportunities.
  • Direct lateral entry at the E4 (Deputy Manager) level allows experienced engineers to join at a relatively senior grade without starting from entry-level positions.
  • The IDA pay scale of ₹70,000–₹2,00,000, along with allowances as per NTPC rules, places this among the more competitive compensation structures in the PSU power sector.
  • As a Government of India enterprise, NTPC offers the job security, structured career progression, and benefits typically associated with central PSU employment.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Q1. What is NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026 (Advt. No. 10/26) about?
It is a recruitment drive by NTPC Limited to fill 135 Deputy Manager posts at the E4 grade across Electrical (40), Mechanical (55), and C&I (40) disciplines, meant for experienced professionals.

Q2. What is the last date to apply for NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026?
The online application portal closes on 20.08.2026. The portal opened on 06.08.2026.

Q3. What is the pay scale for the Deputy Manager post under this recruitment?
The applicable pay scale is ₹70,000–₹2,00,000 (E4/IDA), along with allowances as per NTPC rules.

Q4. Is this recruitment open to freshers?
No. This recruitment is specifically meant for experienced professionals. Exact experience criteria are available only in the detailed advertisement on the official NTPC website.

Q5. How can I apply for NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026?
Applications must be submitted online only through careers.ntpc.co.in or the careers section of www.ntpc.co.in. No other mode of application will be accepted.

Q6. Where can I find the detailed eligibility criteria?
NTPC has directed all candidates to check the detailed eligibility criteria, qualification criteria, and experience criteria on its official website before applying, as this information has not been fully reproduced in the short notification.

Q7. Will there be any corrigendum or updates to this notification?
Yes, if issued. NTPC has clarified that any addendum, corrigendum, or update related to this recruitment will be published only on its official website, and candidates are advised to check the portal regularly.

Key Takeaways at a Glance

Particular Detail
Advertisement No. 10/26
Post Deputy Manager (E4 Grade)
Disciplines Electrical, Mechanical, C&I
Total Vacancies 135 (Electrical: 40, Mechanical: 55, C&I: 40)
Pay Scale ₹70,000–₹2,00,000 (E4/IDA)
Application Mode Online only
Application Start 06.08.2026
Application End 20.08.2026
Eligible Candidates Experienced professionals (exact qualification/experience criteria on official site)
Official Website careers.ntpc.co.in / www.ntpc.co.in

Conclusion

NTPC Deputy Manager Recruitment 2026 under Advertisement No. 10/26 represents a significant opportunity for experienced Electrical, Mechanical, and C&I engineers to join India’s largest integrated power utility at a senior E4 grade, with a total of 135 vacancies on offer and applications open from 06.08.2026 to 20.08.2026. Since NTPC has reserved several critical details — including exact qualification percentages, experience-in-years requirements, age limit, application fee, and selection stages — for its detailed advertisement, candidates are strongly urged to visit careers.ntpc.co.in before applying, and to keep all supporting documents ready well in advance of the closing date.

For continuous updates on this recruitment, including any corrigendum, revised dates, admit card release, and result notifications as and when they are officially announced, readers are advised to stay connected with Manabadi, which will track this recruitment drive closely and update this guide as new verified information becomes available.

NICL Assistant Recruitment 2026: Complete Guide on Notification, Vacancies, Eligibility & Selection Process

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The National Insurance Company Limited (NICL) has officially issued the recruitment notification for 500 Assistant (Class III Cadre) positions across its regional offices and branches throughout India. This recruitment drive offers an opportunity for graduates aiming for a stable career in the public sector insurance domain.

1. Key Highlights & Important Dates

Recruitment Parameter Official Details
Recruiting Organization National Insurance Company Limited (NICL)
Post Title Assistant (Class III Cadre)
Total Vacancies 500 Posts
Online Application Start Date July 18, 2026
Application & Fee Payment Deadline August 7, 2026
Phase-I Preliminary Exam Date August 27, 2026
Phase-II Main Exam Date October 30, 2026
Official Portal nationalinsurance.nic.co.in

2. Category-Wise & State-Wise Vacancies

Category Breakdown

Out of 500 vacancies, reservations are distributed in accordance with Government guidelines:
  • Unreserved (UR): 255
  • Other Backward Classes (OBC): 104
  • Scheduled Caste (SC): 67
  • Economically Weaker Section (EWS): 38
  • Scheduled Tribe (ST): 36
  • Reserved Sub-Categories: Horizontal reservation applies for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities (PwBD – 25 posts) and Ex-Servicemen (EXS – 55 posts). National Insurance – nic.co.in

Top State-Wise Distribution & Language Requirements

Candidates may apply for vacancies in only one State or Union Territory. Proficiency in the regional language of the chosen state is mandatory.
State / Union Territory Official Regional Language Total Vacancies
Maharashtra Marathi 57
Tamil Nadu Tamil 49
West Bengal Bengali 46
Kerala Malayalam 35
Gujarat Gujarati 34
Karnataka Kannada 30
Assam Assamese 18
Chhattisgarh Hindi 18
Madhya Pradesh Hindi 18
Andhra Pradesh Telugu 14
Bihar Hindi 12

3. Eligibility Criteria

Educational Qualification

  • A Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline from a recognized University or equivalent qualification approved by the Central Government.
  • Fluency in reading, writing, and speaking the official language of the state applied for.

Age Limit

  • Minimum Age: 21 years
  • Maximum Age: 30 years
  • Age Relaxation Upper Limits:
    • SC / ST: 5 years (up to 35 years)
    • OBC (Non-Creamy Layer): 3 years (up to 33 years)
    • PwBD: 10 years (General), 13 years (OBC), 15 years (SC/ST)
    • Ex-Servicemen: Actual military service rendered plus 3 years

4. Selection Process

The selection procedure comprises three distinct stages:
  1. Phase-I: Preliminary Examination (Online Objective Test)
  2. Phase-II: Main Examination (Online Objective Test)
  3. Phase-III: Regional Language Test (RLT) (Qualifying in Nature)

5. Examination Pattern

Phase-I: Preliminary Examination Scheme

The Prelims consists of 100 objective-type questions with separate sectional timings totaling 60 minutes.
Subject Number of Questions Maximum Marks Sectional Duration
English Language 30 30 20 Minutes
Reasoning Ability 35 35 20 Minutes
Quantitative Aptitude 35 35 20 Minutes
Total 100 100 60 Minutes
  • Marking Scheme: Each question carries 1 mark. A penalty of 0.25 marks (1/4th) is deducted for every wrong answer. Adda247+ 1

Phase-II: Main Examination Scheme

Candidates shortlisted from Phase-I appear for the Mains test, comprising 200 objective questions for 200 marks.  
Section Number of Questions Maximum Marks Sectional Duration
Test of Reasoning 40 40 30 Minutes
Test of English Language 40 40 30 Minutes
Test of Numerical Ability 40 40 30 Minutes
Test of General Awareness 40 40 15 Minutes
Test of Computer Knowledge 40 40 15 Minutes
Total 200 200 120 Minutes
  • Marking Scheme: Penalty of 0.25 marks applies for incorrect choices.

6. Detailed Syllabus

  • Reasoning Ability: Puzzles, Linear & Circular Seating Arrangements, Syllogism, Blood Relations, Coding-Decoding, Inequality, Input-Output, Data Sufficiency, Order & Ranking, Direction Sense.
  • Numerical Ability / Quantitative Aptitude: Data Interpretation (Bar Graph, Pie Chart, Tabular), Simplification & Approximation, Number Series, Quadratic Equations, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Profit & Loss, Simple & Compound Interest, Time & Work, Time Speed & Distance.
  • English Language: Reading Comprehension, Cloze Test, Error Spotting, Para Jumbles, Sentence Correction, Fillers, Synonyms & Antonyms.
  • General Awareness: Current Events (Last 6 Months), Insurance Sector & Banking Awareness, Key Government Schemes, Static General Knowledge, Financial Awareness.
  • Computer Knowledge: Fundamentals of Computer Hardware & Software, Operating Systems, Microsoft Office (Word, Excel, PowerPoint), Internet & Networking Concepts, Shortcut Keys.

7. Application Fee Structure

Category Application Fee & Intimation Charges
SC / ST / PwBD / EXS ₹100 (Intimation Charges only)
All Other Categories (UR / OBC / EWS) ₹850 (Application Fee + Intimation Charges)

8. Salary Structure & Benefits

  • Pay Scale: Placed in the pay scale of ₹22,405 – ₹62,265.
  • Starting Basic Pay: ₹22,405 per month.
  • Gross In-Hand Pay: Approximately ₹37,000 to ₹53,000 per month depending on city classification (Metropolitan vs Non-Metropolitan).
  • Allowances & Perks: Dearness Allowance (DA revised quarterly), House Rent Allowance (HRA), City Compensatory Allowance (CCA), Medical Insurance under Group Mediclaim, NPS Pension Scheme, and reimbursements for official travel and news subscriptions.

9. Career Progression & Probation

  • Probation Period: Newly recruited Assistants undergo a 6-month probation period.
  • Internal Career Hierarchy:
    • Assistant (Class III Cadre)
    • Senior Assistant (Promoted via internal departmental exams after 3–5 years)
    • Assistant Administrative Officer (AO – Class I)
    • Administrative Officer / Branch Manager

10. Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Is there an interview round for NICL Assistant 2026?

No, there is no interview round. The final selection is based entirely on Phase-II Mains marks, subject to passing the Regional Language Test and medical check.

2. Is the Regional Language Test mandatory?

Yes. Candidates must pass the Regional Language Test of the state they applied for. Candidates who studied the regional language in 10th or 12th grade with valid proof may receive exemptions as per official norms.

3. Can I submit applications for two different states?

No. Multiple applications will lead to rejection. Candidates can apply for vacancies in only one State/UT.

4. What is the penalty for wrong answers?

A negative marking of 0.25 marks is applied for every incorrect answer in both Phase-I and Phase-II tests.

Conclusion

The NICL Assistant Recruitment 2026 offers a prominent opportunity for graduates seeking a stable public sector career in general insurance. Featuring 500 vacancies, competitive remuneration, comprehensive medical benefits, and clear promotional channels, it stands as a key examination drive. Candidates are advised to align their study plan with the two-tier online pattern and prepare systematically across Quantitative Aptitude, Reasoning, English, General Awareness, and Computer Knowledge.  

IREL 2026 notification: apply online, eligibility, salaries, vacancies at manabadi

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IREL (India) Limited is a prestigious Mini Ratna Category-I Central Public Sector Undertaking (PSU) operating under the administrative control of the Department of Atomic Energy. Known for its pivotal role in the mining and processing of rare earths and minerals, IREL offers exceptional career opportunities for experienced professionals looking to contribute to India’s atomic energy sector.

Recruitment Overview

The organization has officially launched its 2026 recruitment drive (Advt. No. CO/HRM/35/2026) to fill 73 executive positions on a regular basis. This nationwide drive encompasses a wide range of leadership roles, scaling from Assistant Manager all the way up to General Manager (grades E-1 to E-7), and covers both technical and non-technical disciplines.

The online application window opened on July 20, 2026, and will remain active until August 10, 2026, at 6:00 PM (18:00 HRS). Successfully selected candidates will initially be posted at the Corporate Office in Mumbai or at various regional plants, including OSCOM (Odisha), Chavara (Kerala), Manavalakurichi (Tamil Nadu), and RED (Aluva). Additionally, aside from this lateral executive drive, IREL also conducts periodic apprenticeship programs for the 2026–2027 period across units like OSCOM and Chavara.

Eligibility Criteria for Candidates

1. Experience Requirement for Government / PSU / Autonomous Organization Candidates

Candidates working in Central Government, State Government, PSUs, Autonomous Organizations, Public Sector Banks, Insurance Companies, or Statutory Bodies must fulfill the following condition:

  • Candidates should be working in the same or analogous post, OR
  • They should have minimum 2 years of experience in the immediate lower scale of pay or equivalent scale as on 10/08/2026.

The required 2 years of experience in the lower pay scale should be part of the total post-qualification experience required for the respective post.

Equivalent Lower Pay Scale Requirement

Post Applied For (Grade) Immediate Lower Scale Experience Required IDA Pay Scale CDA Pay Scale PS Bank Scale
General Manager (E-7) Experience in E-6 Grade ₹90,000–2,40,000 (E-6) Level 13: ₹1,23,100–2,15,900 Scale-V: ₹1,20,940–1,35,020
Deputy General Manager (E-6) Experience in E-5 Grade ₹80,000–2,20,000 (E-5) Level 12: ₹78,800–2,09,200 Scale-IV: ₹1,02,300–1,20,940
Chief Manager (E-5) Experience in E-4 Grade ₹70,000–2,00,000 (E-4) Level 11: ₹67,700–2,08,700 Scale-IV: ₹1,02,300–1,20,940
Senior Manager (E-4) Experience in E-3 Grade ₹60,000–1,80,000 (E-3) Level 11: ₹67,700–2,08,700 Scale-III: ₹85,920–1,05,280
Manager (E-3) Experience in E-2 Grade ₹50,000–1,60,000 (E-2) Level 10: ₹56,100–1,77,500 Scale-II: ₹64,820–93,960
Deputy Manager (E-2) Experience in E-1 Grade ₹40,000–1,40,000 (E-1) Level 10: ₹56,100–1,77,500 Scale-I: ₹48,480–85,920
Assistant Manager (E-1) Induction Level (No lower scale requirement) Not Applicable Not Applicable Not Applicable

Important Note:
Candidates must upload supporting documents proving:

  • Minimum 2 years of service in the immediate lower pay scale
  • Latest salary slip/payslip

2. Candidates Already Working in Same or Higher Pay Scale

Candidates working in:

  • The same/equivalent pay scale of the notified post, or
  • A higher pay scale

may also be considered.

In such cases, the requirement of 2 years’ experience in the immediate lower pay scale will not be mandatory.

3. Pay Scale Equivalency for Candidates from Other Organizations

Candidates working in:

  • State PSUs
  • Autonomous Organizations
  • Public Sector Banks
  • Public Sector Insurance Companies
  • Statutory Bodies
  • Other organizations not following IDA/CDA pay patterns

will have their pay scale equivalence determined by comparing:

Minimum basic pay drawn by the candidate in their current pay scale
with the relevant IDA/CDA pay scale.

The decision of the management regarding pay scale equivalency will be final and binding.

4. Fixed Term / Contract Employees in Government or PSU

Candidates working in Government organizations or PSUs on:

  • Fixed Term Basis
  • Contractual Agreement

and receiving consolidated pay will be considered under the Private Sector eligibility criteria.

Eligibility Criteria for Private Sector Candidates

Candidates from Private Sector and other organizations must satisfy the minimum Cost to Company (CTC) requirement during the last financial year.

Post Applied For (Grade) Minimum Required CTC
General Manager (E-7) 70% of offered CTC of E-7 Grade
Deputy General Manager (E-6) 60% of offered CTC of E-6 Grade
Chief Manager (E-5) 60% of offered CTC of E-5 Grade
Senior Manager (E-4) 50% of offered CTC of E-4 Grade
Manager (E-3) 50% of offered CTC of E-3 Grade
Deputy Manager (E-2) 50% of offered CTC of E-2 Grade
Assistant Manager (E-1) Not Applicable

Documents Required for CTC Verification

Private sector candidates must upload valid documentary proof such as:

  • Offer Letter
  • CTC Certificate
  • Salary Slips
  • Form-16
  • Income Tax Returns (ITR)
  • Any other relevant salary proof documents

The final decision regarding acceptance of CTC proof will be taken by the management and shall be final and binding.

Exemption for EWS Candidates

The minimum CTC requirement will not be applicable to candidates belonging to the EWS category applying for posts reserved under the EWS quota.

Academic Requirements

Applicants must hold a full-time regular degree from a recognized university or institute. A minimum aggregate of 60% is mandatory for general candidates, though this is relaxed to 55% for SC/ST applicants. Notably, this minimum percentage rule is waived for qualified CAs, CMAs, and CSs.

  • Technical & Engineering Posts: Candidates need a B.E. / B.Tech / B.Sc (Engineering) or a 5-year integrated M.Tech in fields like Mechanical, Electrical, Chemical, Mining, IT, Instrumentation, Industrial Safety, or Mineral Engineering. Alternatively, an M.Sc. in Geology/Applied Geology is acceptable.

  • Finance & HR Roles: Finance applicants require CA (ICAI), CMA (ICMAI), or a B.Com followed by an MBA in Finance. Human Resources candidates must possess an MBA, MA, or MSW strictly specializing in HRM, Personnel Management, or Industrial Relations.

  • Other Roles: Legal officers need a professional graduate degree in Law (LLB – 3 or 5 years). Other specialized roles require an MBBS for Medical Officers, active ICSI membership for Company Secretaries, an MA in Hindi/English for Rajbhasha posts, or a background as retired Indian Defence Personnel for Security positions.

Work Experience Requirements

Applicants must possess relevant, post-qualification executive experience. For the entry-level Assistant Manager (E-1) role, candidates must have at least 2 years of experience. For higher grades (E-2 to E-7), the requirement progressively scales from 5 up to 20 years. This experience should ideally be rooted in mining, mineral processing, heavy engineering, or relevant corporate sectors.

Age Limit

Age is calculated as of the crucial cut-off date, August 10, 2026. The maximum age limits are strictly tied to the grade level:

  • Assistant Manager (E-1): 28 Years

  • Deputy Manager (E-2): 32 Years

  • Manager (E-3): 35 Years

  • Senior Manager (E-4): 38 Years

  • Chief Manager (E-5): 42 Years

  • Deputy General Manager (E-6): 46 Years

  • General Manager (E-7): 50 Years

Standard government age relaxations apply: 3 years for OBC-NCL, 5 years for SC/ST, 10 years for PwBD, and 5 years for Central/State Govt/PSU employees. However, including all relaxations, no candidate’s upper age may exceed 56 years.

Vacancies and Disciplines

The 73 available vacancies are strategically divided to support both core operations and corporate frameworks:

  • Technical Roles (41 Vacancies): These include engineering and operational positions across Mechanical, Electrical, Chemical, Mining, Instrumentation, and Mineral Processing.

  • Non-Technical Roles (32 Vacancies): These support administrative functions, with openings in Finance, HRM, Legal, Corporate Communication, IT, Medical, Security, Rajbhasha (Hindi Officer), and the Company Secretariat.

Salaries and Pay Scale Structure

IREL offers highly competitive compensation packages for its executives. The annual Cost to Company (CTC) scales impressively based on the grade level:

Grade Post Title Pay Scale Approx. Annual CTC
E-1 Assistant Manager ₹40,000–1,40,000 ~₹13.35 LPA
E-2 Deputy Manager ₹50,000–1,60,000 ~₹16.69 LPA
E-3 Manager ₹60,000–1,80,000 ~₹20.02 LPA
E-4 Senior Manager ₹70,000–2,00,000 ~₹23.36 LPA
E-5 Chief Manager ₹80,000–2,20,000 ~₹26.70 LPA
E-6 Deputy General Manager ₹90,000–2,40,000 ~₹30.04 LPA
E-7 General Manager ₹1,00,000–2,60,000 ~₹33.38 LPA

In addition to the CTC, executives are generally entitled to performance-related pay, company accommodation or HRA, medical facilities, and post-retirement benefits.

Selection Process

The recruitment process begins with the initial screening and shortlisting of applications based on submitted data and document verification. The primary evaluation method will be a Personal Interview. However, if the volume of applications is exceptionally high, IREL reserves the right to introduce a psychometric test, group exercise, or an online written examination to narrow down the candidate pool.

Application Fee & How to Apply

Interested candidates must complete and submit their applications through the IREL Active Application Portal before the system closes at 6:00 PM on August 10, 2026.

  • General, OBC-NCL, and EWS candidates: Required to pay a total application fee of ₹944/-.

  • SC, ST, PwBD, Women, and Ex-Servicemen: Exempt from the main application fee, but are required to pay a processing fee of ₹354/-.

Applicants are highly encouraged to gather their educational certificates, experience letters, and other necessary documents early to ensure a smooth online registration process.

How to Apply – Online Application Process

Candidates must carefully follow the instructions below while submitting their online application form.

Important Instructions Before Applying

1. Valid Email ID and Mobile Number

Candidates must have:
  • A valid personal email ID
  • An active mobile number

The registered email ID and mobile number provided in the application form must remain active throughout the entire recruitment process.

Important communications such as:

  • Application Sequence Number
  • User ID
  • Password
  • Recruitment updates
  • Interview-related information

will be sent only to the registered email ID and mobile number.

Note: Candidates should ensure that emails from the recruitment authority do not move to the Spam/Junk folder.

2. Enter Correct Details Carefully

Candidates should provide accurate information while filling out the online application form.

Important points:

  • Review all entered details carefully before submission.
  • Corrections/edits are allowed only before final submission.
  • Once the application form is submitted, no changes or modifications will be permitted.

Online Application Procedure

The application process consists of two steps:

Step-I: Registration Process

Candidates need to complete the initial registration by providing:

  • Personal details
  • Contact details
  • Email ID
  • Mobile number

After successful registration:

  • A User ID
  • Password

will be sent to the registered:

  • Email ID
  • Mobile number

Candidates should keep these login credentials safe for future use.

Step-II: Complete Application Form Submission

After registration, candidates must log in using the received User ID and Password.

Complete the following sections:

1. Personal Details

Enter required personal information such as:

  • Name
  • Date of Birth
  • Category details
  • Other basic information

2. Additional Details

Provide additional information as required in the application form.

3. Communication Details

Fill in:

  • Permanent address
  • Correspondence address
  • Contact information

4. Qualification Details

Enter educational qualification details including:

  • Degree/qualification
  • Institution details
  • Year of passing
  • Marks/percentage

5. Upload Required Documents

Upload scanned copies of required documents, including:

  • Recent photograph
  • Signature
  • Category certificates (if applicable)
  • Educational certificates
  • Other supporting documents

6. Declaration and Final Submission

Candidates must:

  • Read the declaration carefully.
  • Confirm that all information provided is correct.
  • Submit the completed application form.

7. Application Fee Payment

Candidates required to pay the application fee can make payment:

  • Online through the Payment Gateway
  • Using available digital payment methods

Important Points After Submission

Application Withdrawal

  • Once submitted, the application cannot be withdrawn.
  • Candidates cannot cancel or modify the submitted application.

Fee Refund Policy

  • Application fee and other charges paid by candidates are non-refundable.
  • The paid amount will not be adjusted or carried forward for any future recruitment or selection process.

Application Process Summary

Step Activity
Step 1 Register personal and contact details
Step 2 Receive User ID and Password through Email/SMS
Step 3 Login and complete application form
Step 4 Enter personal, qualification and communication details
Step 5 Upload photograph, signature and required documents
Step 6 Pay application fee (if applicable)
Step 7 Submit final application form

Candidates are advised to complete the application process well before the last date to avoid last-minute technical issues.

Reservation & Relaxation Criteria

The reservation benefits, age relaxation, fee exemptions, and other concessions for candidates will be provided as per the Government of India rules and guidelines issued from time to time.

1. Reservation Categories

Reservation and relaxation benefits are applicable for candidates belonging to:

  • SC (Scheduled Caste)
  • ST (Scheduled Tribe)
  • OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)
  • EWS (Economically Weaker Section)
  • PwBD (Persons with Benchmark Disabilities – 40% disability and above)
  • Ex-Servicemen
  • Women Candidates
  • Internal Candidates

The reservation for PwBD candidates will be provided on a horizontal basis.

2. Age Relaxation

Age relaxation for:

  • OBC (Non-Creamy Layer)
  • SC/ST
  • PwBD candidates (40% disability and above)
  • Ex-Servicemen

will be provided as per Government of India norms.

Candidates can claim age relaxation only after uploading valid supporting certificates during the online application process.

3. Required Certificates for Reservation Benefits

Candidates claiming reservation benefits must upload valid certificates issued by the competent authority, including:

Category Required Certificate
OBC (NCL) Valid OBC Non-Creamy Layer Certificate
SC/ST Caste Certificate
EWS Income & Asset Certificate
PwBD Disability Certificate
Ex-Servicemen Discharge Certificate

Failure to submit valid certificates will result in the candidate being considered under the Unreserved (UR) category.

4. Candidates Applying Under Unreserved Vacancies

If reservation is not applicable for a particular post:

  • OBC (NCL), SC, and ST candidates applying for Unreserved (UR) vacancies will be considered under general merit criteria.
  • No relaxation in:
    • Age limit
    • Marks/qualification requirements

will be provided.

5. Application Fee Exemption

The following candidates are exempted from payment of the application fee:

  • SC/ST Candidates
  • PwBD Candidates
  • Ex-Servicemen
  • Women Candidates
  • Internal Candidates

However, all exempted candidates must pay a non-refundable processing fee of ₹354/- (including 18% GST).

6. OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) Candidates

Candidates claiming OBC (NCL) reservation must:

  • Upload the latest OBC (NCL) certificate in the prescribed Government of India format.
  • Certificate should comply with DoPT guidelines (Memo No. 36036/2/2013-Estt.(Res.) dated 30-05-2014).

Important:

Candidates must produce a valid OBC (NCL) certificate issued on or after:

01.04.2026

at the time of document verification before the Personal Interview.

Candidates failing to submit the valid certificate will not be allowed to attend the interview under OBC (NCL) category.

7. EWS Category Candidates

Candidates applying under the EWS category must:

  • Upload the latest Income & Asset Certificate issued by the competent authority.
  • Certificate should be as per DoPT OM No.36039/1/2019-Estt.(Res.) dated 31.01.2019.

Important:

Candidates must produce a valid EWS Income & Asset Certificate for the financial year 2026-27 during document verification before the Personal Interview.

Failure to submit the certificate will result in disqualification from claiming EWS benefits.

8. PwBD Candidates

PwBD candidates must possess:

  • A valid disability certificate issued by a competent authority.
  • Certificate should be issued as per the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (RPWD Act, 2016).

The disability certificate may be subject to:

  • Verification
  • Re-verification

as decided by the competent authority.

9. OBC Creamy Layer Candidates

Candidates belonging to the OBC Creamy Layer category:

  • Are not eligible for OBC (NCL) relaxation benefits.
  • Must select their category as UR (Unreserved) while applying.

10. Category Change After Application

Once the category is selected in the online application form:

  • EWS
  • SC
  • ST
  • OBC (NCL)
  • PwBD
  • Ex-Servicemen

it cannot be changed later.

No benefits of any other category will be provided after submission of the application.

11. Physical Requirements for PwBD Candidates

PwBD candidates must satisfy the:

  • Physical Requirements (PR)
  • Functional Classification (FC)

specified for the respective post as mentioned in Annexure-I.

Important Points at a Glance

Benefit Requirement
Age Relaxation Valid category/disability/ex-servicemen certificate required
Reservation Benefit Valid certificate from competent authority mandatory
OBC NCL Benefit Latest certificate + certificate issued on/after 01.04.2026 required
EWS Benefit Valid Income & Asset Certificate for 2026-27 required
PwBD Benefit Disability certificate under RPWD Act, 2016 required
Fee Exemption SC/ST/PwBD/Ex-Servicemen/Women/Internal candidates
Category Change Not allowed after online application submission

MODE OF SELECTION:

a) Shortlisting will be done based on the information/declaration submitted by the candidate at the time of submission of online application. In case any false declaration is found during the verification of documents prior to/during the Personal Interview, candidate will not be allowed to appear the interview and Travelling Cost will not be reimbursed.

b) Shortlisting of the candidate will be done based on the criteria mentioned at Table-2. Candidates having experience from Mining, Metallurgical, Chemical, Power, Manufacturing / Production sectors will have advantage. The management reserves the right to raise the minimum eligibility standards/criteria with respect to qualifying marks, years of experience, etc. to restrict the number of candidates for shortlisting.

c) The assessment will be made through Personal Interview/Psychometric test/group exercise or combinations thereof. In case of number of screened in candidates are more, IREL reserves the right to conduct multiple levels of interviews as need be.

d) Based on the performance in personal interview, organizational requirement, vacancies to be operated and suitability, the candidates will be selected.

e) Mere meeting the advertised specification does not entitle a candidate to be called for Personal Interview.

f) The company reserves the right not to select any candidate for any post, if suitable candidate/s is/are not found.

Note: The Company reserves the right to conduct written test or any other test in case of requirement.

Indian Army SSC Tech Women Recruitment 2027 Notification Out: Apply Online for 68th SSC (Tech) Women Entry

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The Indian Army has released the official notification inviting applications from eligible unmarried female engineering graduates for the 68th Short Service Commission (Technical) Women Course, April 2027. This notification also includes a special entry for Widows of Indian Armed Forces Defence Personnel who died in harness, covering both Technical and Non-Technical (Non-UPSC) categories. Applications are to be submitted online.

Manabadi brings you the complete, official breakdown of this notification – eligibility, stream-wise vacancies, selection procedure, training details, pay structure and the application process – so that every aspiring candidate has all the information needed in one place.

Quick Overview

Particular Detail
Type of Entry Short Service Entry (Technical) (SSCW(T)-68) Women
Age 20 to 27 years as on 01 April 2027
Open For Unmarried Female candidates
Educational Qualification Engineering Degree in notified streams
Vacancies 29–30 (stream-wise, see table below)
How to Apply Online at www.joinindianarmy.nic.in
Application Window 08 July 2026 to 06 August 2026
Selection Process Application → Shortlisting → SSB → Medical → Merit List → Joining Letter
Cut-off % Publication for Shortlisting First week of September 2026
Likely SSB Duration & Dates Five-day SSB between October–December 2026 (choice of SSB dates/centre open for two weeks in September 2026)
Pre-Commission Training Academy Officers Training Academy (OTA), Gaya, Bihar
Duration of Training April 2027 to March 2028
Stipend During Training Rs. 56,100 per month
Rank After Training Lieutenant
Salary on Commissioning CTC approx. Rs. 17–18 lakh per annum (excluding free medical cover and one home-town visit per year)
Type of Commission Short Service Commission
Minimum Engagement Period 10 years
Maximum Engagement Period 14 years
Option for Release First – after 5 years; Second – after 10 years; Third – after 14 years
Option for Permanent Commission After 10 years

About This Notification

Applications are invited from eligible unmarried female Engineering Graduates for Short Service Commission (SSC) in the Indian Army. The course will commence in April 2027 at the Pre-Commissioning Training Academy (PCTA). This notification is published in both Hindi and English; both versions carry equal effect, but in case of any discrepancy between the two, the English version will prevail.

Eligibility Criteria

1. Nationality

A candidate must be one of the following:
(i) A citizen of India; or
(ii) A subject of Nepal; or
(iii) A person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka or East African countries such as Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia or Vietnam, with the intention of permanently settling in India.

Candidates falling under categories (ii) and (iii) must possess a certificate of eligibility issued by the Government of India, except Gorkha subjects of Nepal, for whom this certificate is not necessary.

2. Age Limit

For SSC (Tech)-68 Women: 20 to 27 years as on 01 April 2027 (candidates born between 01 April 2000 and 31 March 2007, both days inclusive).

For Widows of Indian Armed Forces Defence Personnel who Died in Harness (SSCW Non-Tech Non-UPSC and SSCW Tech): maximum age of 35 years as on 01 April 2027.

3. Educational Qualification

Candidates who have passed the requisite Engineering Degree course, or who are in the final year of the Engineering Degree course, are eligible to apply. Final-year candidates must be able to submit proof of passing the Engineering Degree Examination, along with marksheets of all semesters/years, by 01 April 2027, and must produce the Engineering Degree Certificate within 12 weeks from the date of commencement of training at PCTA.

Candidates who fail to produce the requisite degree certificate within this window will be inducted on an Additional Bond Basis, making them liable for recovery of training costs, stipend, and pay & allowances already paid.

Important note for final-year candidates: Candidates whose final year/final semester exam result is declared after 01 April 2027 are NOT eligible to apply for this course. Only candidates currently studying in the final year of their degree examination are eligible; this SSB appearance is treated as a special concession, and:

  • Up to the 6th semester/3rd year of Engineering degree (or the 8th semester/4th year of B.Architecture, or 2nd semester/1st year of M.Sc. in a notified equivalent stream), the cumulative percentage of marks must not be below the approved cut-off percentage in the respective stream.
  • After the declaration of final results, the cumulative percentage of marks up to the final semester/year must also not fall below the approved cut-off percentage — failing which the candidature will be cancelled.

Educational Qualification for Widows of Defence Personnel

  • SSCW (Non-Tech) (Non-UPSC): Graduation in any discipline.
  • SSCW (Tech): B.E./B.Tech in any Engineering stream.

Points Requiring Special Attention (As Highlighted in the Notification)

  1. Mismatch in Engineering Stream: Any variation between the stream name on the degree certificate/marksheet and the stream submitted in the online application will result in cancellation of candidature.
  2. Variation in Name: Any variation in personal details (candidate’s name and parents’ names as mentioned on educational documents) requires the candidate to submit an affidavit clearly stating the variation.
  3. Carry of Degree/Provisional Degree and Marksheet: Candidates must carry their degree/provisional degree and all semester/year marksheets to the SSB.
  4. Minimum Physical Standards required before joining the training academy:
Activity Minimum Standard for Officer Cadets (Women)
2.4 Km Run 13 minutes
Push-Up 15
Pull-Up 02
Sit-Up 25
Squats Two sets of 30 repetitions
Lunges Two sets of 10 repetitions
Swimming Basic knowledge required

Note on Date of Birth: Only the date of birth recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate (or equivalent) as on the date of application submission will be accepted. No other document related to age will be entertained, and no subsequent request for age correction will be considered.

Stream-Wise Vacancy Details

Only the Engineering streams and their notified equivalent streams – strictly as listed in the table below – are accepted. Candidates holding degrees in any other Engineering stream are not eligible to apply. Any mismatch between the stream name on the degree/marksheet and the stream declared in the online application will lead to cancellation of candidature.

1. Civil Engineering Stream – 07 vacancies
Accepted equivalent streams include: Civil Engineering, Civil Environmental Engineering, Civil Engineering and Planning, Civil and Infrastructure Engineering, Civil Technology, Construction Engineering, Construction Engineering and Management, Construction Technology, Construction Technology and Management, Architecture Engineering, Building Engineering and Construction Management, Building and Construction Technology, and Building Construction Technology.

2. Computer Science Stream – 04 vacancies
Accepted equivalent streams include: Computer Engineering, Computer Science, Computer Technology, Computer Science and Engineering, 3-D Animation and Graphics, Advanced Computer Application, Computer and Communication Engineering, Computer Networking, Computer Science and Information Technology, Mathematics and Computing, Nano Science and Technology, Computer Science and Engineering (Cyber Security), Computer Science and Engineering (Artificial Intelligence), Computer Science & Engineering (AI and Machine Learning), Computer Science & Engineering (Internet of Things & Cyber Security including Blockchain Technology), Artificial Intelligence (AI) and Data Science, Data Science and Engineering, Information Technology, Information Science and Engineering, Software Engineering, Information and Communication Technology, and Geo Informatics, among others.

3. Electrical Stream – 03 vacancies
Accepted equivalent streams: Electrical Engineering, Electrical and Electronics Engineering, Electrical and Electronics (Power System), and Electrical and Mechanical Engineering.

4. Electronics Stream – 06 vacancies
Accepted equivalent streams include: Electronics & Communication Engineering, Electronics Communication & Instrumentation Engineering, Applied Electronics & Communications, Electronics & Instrumentation, Instrumentation & Control Engineering, Instrumentation Technology, Robotics & Automation, Electronics Engineering, Power Electronics, Electronics and Control Systems, Electronics & Telecommunication, Telecommunication Engineering, Opto Electronics, Micro Electronics and Microwave Engineering, Fibre Optics, and Satellite Communication, among others.

5. Mechanical Stream – 09 vacancies
Accepted equivalent streams include: Mechanical Engineering, Mechatronics Engineering, Mechanical & Automation Engineering, Mechanical Engineering (Automobile), Mechanical Engineering (Manufacturing/Production/Welding Technology), Production Engineering, Automobile Engineering, Industrial Engineering & Management, Manufacturing Engineering & Technology, Workshop Technology, Aeronautical Engineering, Aerospace Engineering, Aircraft Maintenance Engineering, and Avionics Engineering, among others.

Total: 29 vacancies (07 + 04 + 03 + 06 + 09), as per the sum shown in the stream-wise table and confirmed by the English-language “TOTAL 29” figure at the end of the vacancy table.

Special Entry: Widows of Defence Personnel

Entry Vacancy Qualification
SSCW Tech-68 (April 2027) Course 01 BE/B.Tech in any Engineering stream
SSCW (Non-Tech) (Non-UPSC)-125 (April 2027) Course 01 Graduation in any stream

Candidates applying for SSCW (Non-Tech) (Non-UPSC)-125 should mention “SSCW (Non-Tech) (Non-UPSC)-125 (Apr 2027) Course” as the course number on their application.

Important Notes for This Category

  1. A candidate is permitted to apply for only one entry/discipline among the above courses. Change of entry or qualification choice will not be entertained at any stage of the selection process.
  2. Widows of Indian Armed Forces Defence Personnel who died in harness – including those with children – are eligible to apply for SSCW (Tech & Non-Tech), provided they have not remarried. Their candidature will be considered only against the specific vacancies released for this category. If these vacancies remain unfilled, they revert to the general category.

Documents Required for the Widows Entry

  • Application form (downloaded from www.joinindianarmy.nic.in)
  • Self-attested copy of Class 10th Certificate and Marksheet
  • Self-attested copy of Class 12th Certificate and Marksheet
  • Self-attested copy of Degree Certificate and Marksheet
  • Part II Order of Marriage
  • Part II Order of demise of husband
  • Initial report of Battle/Physical casualty
  • Detailed report of Battle/Physical casualty
  • Battle/Physical casualty certificate

Documents (v) to (ix) above must be attested by an officer from the MP Directorate (MP-5 & 6), IHQ of MoD (Army) for officer applicants, and by the Concerned Record Office for JCO/OR applicants.

How Widows Should Apply

This category applies offline, not through the standard online portal. The envelope must be superscribed in red ink, clearly indicating the name and rank of the officer/JCO/OR — for example, “Widows of late________”. Applications should be sent directly to:

Rtg ‘A’ (TGC) Section, Directorate General of Recruiting, AG’s Branch, Integrated HQ, Ministry of Defence (Army), West Block-III, R.K. Puram, New Delhi – 110066

Last date for receipt of these offline applications, complete in all respects: 21 August 2026 – that is, 15 days after the closing date of online applications for the main category. Applications received after this date, or incomplete applications, will not be accepted.

Nationality/Recognition Note for Engineering Degrees

Candidates should hold their Engineering degree from a University/Institution recognised by an Act of Central or State Legislature in India, or from other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament, or declared as deemed Universities/Autonomous Universities under the UGC Act 1956, IIT Act 1961, AICTE Act 1987, NITSER Act 2007, or IIIT Act 2024. Candidates with degrees from foreign countries are not eligible to apply for this course.

Selection Procedure

The selection process consists of the following stages:

Stage 1: Shortlisting of Applications

The Integrated HQ of MoD (Army) reserves the right to shortlist applications based on the vacancy-to-call-up ratio for each engineering discipline/stream, without assigning any reason. The cut-off is applied on the cumulative percentage of marks obtained up to the final semester/year, in each stream.

Note on percentage calculation: The online application form converts marks to percentage using a simple percentage formula, and this is used for shortlisting purposes. However, the percentage arrived at using the candidate’s own college/university CGPA-to-percentage conversion formula will be treated as final. If a candidate’s actual percentage, after applying their university’s official conversion formula, falls below the cut-off, that candidate should not report for SSB — even if shortlisted based on the marks filled in the application form.

Stage 2: Allotment of Selection Centre and Dates

After shortlisting, candidates must log in to the website and select their SSB dates and centres, which are available on a first-come, first-served basis. Once selected, the SSB centre and date cannot be changed later, except in exceptional circumstances at the discretion of the Directorate General of Recruiting.

Stage 3: Conduct of SSB

Only shortlisted eligible candidates, based on the cut-off percentage, will be interviewed at one of the four Selection Centres:

  • Prayagraj (Uttar Pradesh)
  • Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
  • Bengaluru (Karnataka)
  • Jalandhar (Punjab)

The Call-Up letter for the SSB interview will be issued by the respective Selection Centre through the candidate’s registered email ID and SMS only. No request for changes to the assigned selection centre will be entertained.

Candidates go through a two-stage selection procedure:

  • Those who clear Stage-1 proceed to Stage-2.
  • Those who fail Stage-1 are returned on the same day.

The full SSB interview process runs over five days. Candidates recommended after Stage-2 then undergo a medical examination.

Medical Examination

  • The validity of the SSB medical examination is 270 days – counted from the Special Medical Board (SMB) date to the PCTA joining date.
  • A candidate who has already undergone SSB medical (SMB/AMB/RMB) for any SSB of any service, and been declared “Medically Fit,” need not undergo a fresh medical examination for SSCW(Tech)-68, provided the gap between the medical date and joining date (01 April 2027) is less than 270 days.
  • Candidates already undergoing training at any PCTA need not undergo a fresh medical for this course, even if the gap exceeds 270 days.
  • Medical Board proceedings are confidential and will not be disclosed to anyone. The Directorate General of Recruiting has no role in the Medical Board process.

Type of Commission

Grant of Commission

Selected candidates will be granted a Short Service Commission on probation in the rank of Lieutenant (except widows selected under the SSC (Women)(Non-Tech)(Non-UPSC) category) from the date of commencement of the course, or the date of reporting at PCTA – whichever is later. Full pay and allowances admissible to a Lieutenant will be paid after successful completion of pre-commission training.

Confirmation of Short Service Commission

On successful completion of pre-commission training at PCTA, the officer will be confirmed as holding a Short Service Commission (Technical) in the rank of Lieutenant.

Ante-Date Seniority

Engineering Graduates commissioned via this route in the rank of Lieutenant will be granted one year of ante-date seniority from the date of commission.

Important exception: Widows of Defence Personnel selected for SSC (NT) (Non-Technical) will be granted the Short Service Commission on successful completion of training but will NOT be entitled to any ante-date seniority.

Termination of Commission

An officer granted Short Service Commission is liable to serve for ten years, but the Government of India may terminate the commission at any time on grounds of:

  • Misconduct or unsatisfactory service
  • Medical unfitness
  • Services no longer being required
  • Failure to qualify in any prescribed test or course

An officer may also, on three months’ notice, be permitted to resign on compassionate grounds – the Government of India being the sole judge of such requests. Officers who resign on compassionate grounds are not eligible for terminal gratuity.

Training Details

Induction and Duration

Selected candidates will be detailed for training at Officers Training Academy (OTA), Gaya, Bihar, according to their position in the final merit order (engineering stream-wise), subject to the number of available vacancies and meeting all eligibility criteria.

Note on training duration: The Highlights table at the start of the notification states the training duration as “49 weeks from April 2027 to March 2028.” However, Para 7.1 of the detailed notification body states the “Duration of Training is 46 weeks (excluding term break).” This is a discrepancy within the official document itself. Candidates should note both figures and rely on the official website or the joining instructions issued closer to the course date for the exact confirmed duration.

Restrictions During Training

Candidates are not permitted to marry during the period of training, nor are they permitted to live with parents/guardians. If a candidate marries during training, she will be discharged and held liable to refund all expenditure incurred on her by the government. A candidate who marries after the date of application – even if successful at the SSB interview and medical examination – will not be inducted for training, and her candidature will be cancelled.

Academic Degree

Training at PCTA is entirely at Government expense. All candidates who successfully complete pre-commission training at OTA, Gaya will be awarded a “Post Graduate Diploma in Military Studies & Defence Management” by Magadh University, Bodh Gaya.

Cost of Training and Withdrawal

If an Officer Cadet resigns or withdraws from the Academy for reasons other than medical grounds or reasons beyond their control, they will be liable to refund the cost of training at Rs. 20,482.40 per week (for the period 01 July 2026 to 30 June 2027, or as notified from time to time), calculated for the duration of their stay at the Academy.

Permission to Attend Another SSB During Training

After joining PCTA, permission to appear for the SSB of another entry may be granted only once, during the first term of training, and only if the Officer Cadet had already qualified/been shortlisted for that SSB before joining PCTA. Such leave is permitted only if the candidate is upgrading their career – i.e., moving from Short Service Commission (SSC) to Permanent Commission (PC) entries.

Terms and Conditions of Service

Tenure of Engagement

Officers are liable to serve for 10 years, with a provision for release after 5 years of service, subject to Army HQ approval on merit. The 10-year tenure may be extended by a further 4 years, subject to the officer opting for it and being found eligible. Officers desirous of Permanent Commission (PC) may be considered in the 10th year of service, based on eligibility and suitability as per the terms in force at that time.

Special Provision for Release After 5 Years

SSC Officers who have not undergone (or are not undergoing) any specialised course, and who wish to leave service after 5 years, may apply to Army HQ for release during their 5th year of service. Army HQ’s decision on such applications, made on merit, is final and irrevocable.

Officers who have undergone or are undergoing a specialised course will not be released before the full 14-year tenure expires, unless the prescribed cost of that specialised training is first recovered from them. They are required to execute a bond to this effect at the time of nomination for such a course.

Special Provisions During Extended Tenure

During the extended service period, officers may seek release from the Army on the following grounds:

  • Taking up a civil job
  • Pursuing higher education
  • Starting their own business or joining a family business

Promotion Criteria

Rank Promotion Criteria
Lieutenant On Commission
Captain On completion of 2 years reckonable commissioned service
Major On completion of 6 years reckonable commissioned service
Lieutenant Colonel On completion of 13 years reckonable commissioned service
Colonel (TS) On completion of 26 years reckonable commissioned service
Colonel and above (Brigadier, Major General, Lieutenant General/HAG Scale, HAG+ Scale, VCOAS/Army Cdr/Lt Gen NFSG, COAS) On selection basis, subject to fulfilment of requisite service conditions

Seniority Adjustment

To adjust for the shorter training period of SSC officers relative to PC officers, SSC officer seniority is depressed by the period corresponding to the difference in training duration between the SSC course and its equivalent PC course. This adjustment is carried out at the time of grant of the first substantive rank of Captain.

Pay Structure

Rank Pay Level Pay Scale (in Rs.)
Lieutenant Level 10 56,100 – 1,77,500
Captain Level 10B 61,300 – 1,93,900
Major Level 11 69,400 – 2,07,200
Lieutenant Colonel Level 12A 1,21,200 – 2,12,400
Colonel Level 13 1,30,600 – 2,15,900
Brigadier Level 13A 1,39,600 – 2,17,600
Major General Level 14 1,44,200 – 2,18,200
Lieutenant General (HAG Scale) Level 15 1,82,200 – 2,24,100
Lieutenant General (HAG+ Scale) Level 16 2,05,400 – 2,24,400
VCOAS/Army Commander/Lt Gen (NFSG) Level 17 Rs. 2,25,000 (fixed)
COAS Level 18 Rs. 2,50,000 (fixed)

Military Service Pay (MSP)

Rs. 15,500 per month (fixed), applicable to officers from the rank of Lieutenant to Brigadier.

Stipend During Cadet Training

Rs. 56,100 per month (starting pay of Level 10), payable for the entire duration of training at PCTA. On successful commissioning, pay in the pay matrix is fixed at the first cell of Level 10. The training period is not treated as commissioned service, but arrears of admissible allowances for the training period are paid to cadets.

Other Allowances

  • Dearness Allowance: At the same rates applicable to civilian personnel.
  • Para Reserve Allowance: Rs. 2,625 per month.
  • Technical Allowance (Tier-I): Rs. 3,000 per month.
  • Technical Allowance (Tier-II): Rs. 4,500 per month.
  • Dress Allowance: Rs. 20,000 per year.
  • Ration in Kind: Provided in peace and field areas.

Transport Allowance (TPTA)

For Pay Level 10 and above: Rs. 7,200 + applicable DA per month in “Higher TPTA Cities” (Hyderabad, Patna, Delhi, Ahmedabad, Surat, Bengaluru, Kochi, Kozhikode, Indore, Greater Mumbai, Nagpur, Pune, Jaipur, Chennai, Coimbatore, Ghaziabad, Kanpur, Lucknow, Kolkata), and Rs. 3,600 + DA at other places. This allowance is not admissible to those provided Government transport, nor for calendar months fully covered by leave.

Field Area and Hardship Allowances

Officers posted to Field Areas are eligible for various hardship/risk-based allowances depending on rank and posting location, ranging broadly from around Rs. 1,200 to Rs. 42,500 per month depending on the specific risk-hardship category (High Altitude Allowance, Siachen Allowance, Flying Allowance, Special Forces Allowance, Submarine Allowance, Field Area Allowance, Counter-Insurgency Allowance, and several others), as detailed in the official notification’s Field Area Allowance matrix. All allowance rates increase automatically by 25% each time Dearness Allowance crosses a 50% threshold.

Children Education Allowance & Hostel Subsidy

  • Children Education Allowance: Rs. 2,250 per month per child, for the two eldest surviving children only, from Nursery to 12th class. Reimbursement is done once a year after the financial year ends.
  • Hostel Subsidy: Approximately Rs. 6,750–6,850 per month per child (figure varies slightly between the Hindi and English sections of the notification), for the two eldest surviving children, from Nursery to 12th class.

Army Group Insurance Fund (AGIF)

Cadets in receipt of stipend are insured for Rs. 1.25 crore, as applicable to regular Army officers. A monthly subscription of Rs. 12,500 must be paid in advance to become a member. For those invalidated out due to disability and not entitled to any pension: Rs. 25 lakh for 100% disability, proportionately reduced to Rs. 5 lakh for 20% disability, and an Ex-Gratia grant of Rs. 50,000 for disability below 20%. Disability arising from alcoholism, drug addiction, or pre-enrolment diseases does not qualify for these benefits. Cadets withdrawn on disciplinary grounds, expelled, or who leave voluntarily are also not eligible for disability benefits or the Ex-Gratia grant.

How to Apply: Step-by-Step Process

  1. Visit www.joinindianarmy.nic.in.
  2. Click on ‘Officer Entry Appln/Login’, then click ‘Registration’ (not required if already registered on the portal).
  3. Read the instructions and fill the online registration form.
  4. After registration, click ‘Apply Online’ under the Dashboard.
  5. On the ‘Officers Selection – Eligibility’ page, click ‘Apply’ against the Short Service Commission Technical Course.
  6. On the Application Form page, fill in details under each segment: Personal information, Communication details, Education details, and previous SSB details – clicking ‘Save & Continue’ before moving to the next segment.
  7. Review all entries on the ‘Summary of your information’ page, then click ‘Submit’ only after confirming accuracy.
  8. Take out two copies of the application (with Roll Number) 30 minutes after the final closure of the online application on the last day.

Aadhaar number and Matriculation certificate are mandatory for registration on the website.

Important Notes on the Application

  • No changes can be made to submitted details after the application window closes; no representation on this will be entertained.
  • CGPA/Grades must be converted to marks using the formula adopted by the concerned university, when filling “Marks obtained in Graduation.” Any discrepancy detected at any stage will lead to cancellation of candidature.
  • The candidate’s name, parents’ names, and date of birth in the profile and application must exactly match the Matriculation/Secondary School certificate; any variation leads to cancellation.

Documents to Carry to the SSB (Self-Attested Copies + Originals)

DIGILOCKER certificates will NOT be accepted in lieu of original certificates.

  1. One copy of the application printout, signed and affixed with a self-attested photograph.
  2. Matriculation/Secondary School certificate and marksheet, or equivalent, issued by the concerned Board.
  3. 12th class marksheet and certificate, or equivalent/diploma marksheet and certificate (for diploma holders).
  4. Engineering Degree/Provisional Degree from a recognised university (provisional degree must not be more than six months old at the time of joining the Academy).
  5. Marksheets of all semesters/years.
  6. Certificate from the university’s Controller of Examination/Registrar regarding the CGPA-to-percentage conversion formula.
  7. Certificate from the Controller of Exam/Registrar/Dean/Principal regarding cumulative percentage of marks up to the relevant semester/year (for final-year appearing candidates).
  8. Certificate from the Principal/Head of Institution confirming the candidate is in the final year and that results will be declared by 01 April 2027.
  9. A declaration by final-year candidates undertaking to submit proof of passing the degree examination, with all marksheets, by 01 April 2027.
  10. Documents related to civil verification.

Note: Any candidate who does not carry these documents to the SSB interview will have their candidature cancelled and will be returned. If a school/college/university issues only e-certificates via DigiLocker with no hard copy, the candidate must obtain and carry a certificate confirming this fact, along with an authenticated colour printout of the e-certificate.

Entitlement for Travelling Allowance

Candidates appearing for the SSB interview for the first time for a particular type of commission are entitled to AC-3 Tier railway fare or bus fare (including reservation-cum-sleeper charges) within Indian limits, for both onward and return journeys. Candidates re-applying for the same type of commission will not be entitled to travelling allowance on any subsequent occasion.

Merit List and Final Selection

Qualifying at the SSB interview does not confirm final selection. The merit list is prepared stream/subject-wise, based on marks obtained at the SSB interview. In case of a tie:

  1. The older candidate (by age) is ranked higher.
  2. If age is also equal, the candidate with a higher percentage of marks in their qualifying degree is ranked higher.

Higher educational qualifications or past performance play no role in merit ranking. Only candidates within the merit list, within the stipulated stream-wise vacancies, and declared medically fit will receive joining letters for pre-commissioning training — subject to meeting all eligibility criteria.

Reporting deadline: If a candidate fails to report to PCTA within 7 days of the reporting date mentioned in the Joining Letter, without prior permission from the Academy Adjutant, the candidature will be cancelled and the joining letter will pass to the next candidate on the merit list.

General Conditions and Restrictions

  • On joining the Army, certain personal restrictions apply in accordance with Article 33 of the Constitution of India, as promulgated in the Army Act and Army Rules.
  • No request for change of SSB interview date or centre will be entertained or replied to, once selected.
  • Any ambiguity, false information, or concealment detected in certificates/documents/online application at any stage will result in cancellation of candidature.
  • Candidates must never have been debarred from appearing in any UPSC examination.
  • Candidates must never have been arrested or convicted by a criminal court, nor involved in any criminal case. If such an issue surfaces during selection or training, the candidature/cadetship will be cancelled/withdrawn by IHQ of MoD (Army).
  • Candidates withdrawn from NDA, IMA, OTA, Naval Academy, Air Force Academy, or any Service Training Academy on disciplinary grounds are not eligible to apply.
  • All queries regarding centre allotment, interview dates, merit list, or joining instructions must be submitted through the ‘Feedback/Query’ option on the official website only. Queries should be reviewed against the notification, tickers, FAQs and other uploaded instructions before submission.
  • To avoid last-minute rush, only queries received up to 3 days before the closing date of online applications will be entertained/replied to.

Important Timeline Summary

Event Date
Online Application Opens 08 July 2026, 1500 hrs
Online Application Closes 06 August 2026, 1500 hrs
Last Date for Offline Widows’ Applications 21 August 2026
Cut-off % Publication for Shortlisting First week of September 2026
SSB Date/Centre Selection Window Two weeks in September 2026
Likely SSB Interviews October – December 2026 (5-day process)
Training Commences April 2027
Training Concludes March 2028 (per Highlights table; duration itself is stated inconsistently as 46 or 49 weeks — see note above)

Final Word for Candidates

This is a merit-based, engineering-stream-specific entry with a total of 29 notified vacancies (as per the stream-wise breakup) – a relatively small and highly competitive intake. Candidates should pay close attention to the exact wording of their engineering degree stream, since even minor naming mismatches between the degree certificate and the online application form lead to outright cancellation.

For continuous updates on Indian Army recruitment notifications, application deadlines and selection results, keep following Manabadi.

APTDC Master Chef Recruitment 2026: Notification, Eligibility, Application & Interview Details at Manabadi

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The Andhra Pradesh Tourism Development Corporation Limited (APTDC) has published an official recruitment notification (Notification No.: 01/APTDC/2026-27) inviting applications for the post of Master Chef (Multi-Cuisine). This hiring process aims to recruit qualified and experienced culinary professionals on a Consultant Basis to manage kitchen operations and food preparation across various Haritha Hotels & Resorts in Andhra Pradesh.

Below is the complete overview of the APTDC Master Chef recruitment, including eligibility criteria, job responsibilities, interview venue, application process, and contact information.

APTDC Master Chef Recruitment 2026: Key Highlights

Field Details
Organization Name Andhra Pradesh Tourism Development Corporation (APTDC)
Notification Number 01/APTDC/2026-27
Notification Date August 05, 2026
Post Title Master Chef (Multi-Cuisine)
Employment Category Consultant / Contract Basis
Work Place Haritha Hotels & Resorts across Andhra Pradesh
Selection Mode Skill Test & Walk-in Interview
Application Mode Download Form & Email Submission

Detailed Job Overview & Role Expectations

What is Multi-Cuisine Culinary Expertise?

APTDC seeks chefs who possess practical expertise in preparing multiple culinary styles to serve diverse domestic and international tourists visiting Haritha Resorts. The primary cuisines include:

  • South Indian Cuisines (Authentic regional delicacies and breakfast items)

  • North Indian Cuisines (Curries, tandoor preparations, and breads)

  • Chinese Cuisines (Soups, stir-fries, and noodles)

  • Continental Cuisines (Appetizers, roasts, grills, and salads)

Primary Responsibilities of a Master Chef at Haritha Hotels

  • Overseeing menu planning and maintaining authentic taste profiles across regional and international items.

  • Ensuring strict health, hygiene, and safety standards inside resort kitchens.

  • Managing inventory, raw material quality control, and minimizing kitchen wastage.

  • Conducting on-job training for junior kitchen staff and line cooks at Haritha properties.

Eligibility Criteria

Qualification & Experience

  • Culinary Expertise: Must have hands-on experience as a professional chef or head cook in hotel chains, resorts, or commercial multi-cuisine restaurants.

  • General Candidates Excluded: This position is strictly reserved for candidates with specialized culinary skills and relevant industry experience. General candidates holding only 10th class, Intermediate, or standard non-culinary degrees without cooking experience are not eligible.

Important Dates & Schedule

Event Date & Time
Application Submission Starts August 06, 2026 (10:30 AM)
Application Submission Deadline August 14, 2026 (By 5:30 PM)
Skill Test & Interview Date August 19, 2026 onwards (Reporting Time: 9:30 AM)

Selection Process & Walk-In Interview Details

Selection will be based on a two-stage evaluation: a practical Skill Test followed by a personal Interview.

Interview Venue

  • Location: Haritha Berm Park, Punnami Ghat, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.

  • Reporting Time: 9:30 AM on August 19, 2026.

Step-by-Step Guide: How to Apply

  1. Download Application: Visit the official APTDC website (tourism.ap.gov.in) and download the official recruitment application form under the notification section.

  2. Fill Details: Complete all required sections in the application form, specifying your professional background, certifications, and culinary experience.

  3. Attach Documents: Prepare scanned copies of relevant certificates, experience letters, identity proof, and your professional culinary resume/portfolio.

  4. Submit via Email: Send the completed form and attached documents to admin@aptdc.in before August 14, 2026, by 5:30 PM.

Official Helpdesk & Contact Information

For queries regarding the recruitment process, application status, or venue directions, candidates may contact the designated officials:

  • Sri. Syed Mujahiddin (Assistant Manager): +91 9666562731

  • G. Rambabu (Senior Assistant): +91 7095009993

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

1. Is the APTDC Master Chef role a permanent government position?

No, the Master Chef role advertised under Notification No. 01/APTDC/2026-27 is purely on a Consultant / Contract Basis for working across Haritha Hotels & Resorts in Andhra Pradesh.

2. What is the last date to submit the application for APTDC Master Chef Recruitment 2026?

The deadline for submitting completed application forms via email is August 14, 2026, by 5:30 PM.

3. Can candidates without culinary experience apply for this post?

No, freshers or general candidates holding only 10th Class, Intermediate, or standard non-culinary degrees without prior professional cooking experience are not eligible for this specialized role.

4. How will the selection process be conducted?

Selection is based on a two-step process: a practical Skill Test followed by a personal Interview starting on August 19, 2026, at 9:30 AM.

5. Where will the skill test and interview take place?

The venue for the skill test and interview is: Haritha Berm Park, Punnami Ghat, Vijayawada, Andhra Pradesh.

6. What email address should I use to submit my application form?

All completed application forms along with supporting documents must be emailed directly to admin@aptdc.in.

7. Whom can I contact for official recruitment assistance?

Candidates can reach out to the official helpline contacts:

  • Sri. Syed Mujahiddin (Assistant Manager): +91 9666562731

  • G. Rambabu (Senior Assistant): +91 7095009993

Conclusion

The APTDC Master Chef Recruitment 2026 offers a valuable opportunity for skilled culinary professionals specializing in South Indian, North Indian, Chinese, and Continental cuisines to showcase their expertise within Andhra Pradesh’s premier public sector hospitality brand. Interested and eligible chefs must ensure their applications are emailed to admin@aptdc.in before the August 14, 2026 deadline and prepare for the walk-in skill evaluation at Haritha Berm Park, Vijayawada on August 19, 2026.

NHSRCL Recruitment 2026: Apply Online for 237 Technician Posts – Notification Out, Eligibility, Salary, Selection Process & Last Date

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NHSRCL Recruitment 2026

The National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL) has officially released the NHSRCL Recruitment 2026 Notification for 237 Technician posts on July 7, 2026. This recruitment is being conducted to strengthen the workforce involved in India’s prestigious Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (Bullet Train) Project. Interested and eligible candidates can submit their online applications from July 7, 2026, to August 5, 2026 through the official recruitment portal. The selection process includes a Computer-Based Test (CBT), Document Verification, and Medical Examination, with no interview.

Students and job aspirants can also stay updated with the latest Government Jobs, Railway Recruitment, Exam Results, Hall Tickets, Answer Keys, and Admission Notifications through Manabadi, one of India’s most trusted education portals. Manabadi provides timely updates, official links, and detailed guides to help candidates complete every stage of the recruitment process.

NHSRCL Recruitment 2026 Overview

Particular Details
Organization National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL)
Recruitment Name NHSRCL Recruitment 2026
Post Name Technician
Total Vacancies 237 Posts
Job Location Mumbai-Ahmedabad High Speed Rail Corridor / NHSRCL Projects
Application Mode Online
Notification Release Date July 7, 2026
Application Starts July 7, 2026
Last Date to Apply August 5, 2026
Maximum Age 35 Years
Salary ₹35,000 – ₹1,10,000
Selection Process CBT, Document Verification & Medical Test
Official Website NHSRCL

NHSRCL Recruitment 2026 Important Dates

Event Date
Notification Released July 7, 2026
Online Application Starts July 7, 2026
Last Date to Apply August 5, 2026
Application Fee Payment     August 5, 2026
CBT Exam Date To be Announced
Admit Card Release Before Examination
Result Declaration To be Announced

About NHSRCL

National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL) is a Government of India enterprise established to implement India’s first high-speed rail corridor. It functions under the Ministry of Railways and is responsible for planning, construction, operation, and maintenance of the Mumbai-Ahmedabad High-Speed Rail (MAHSR) project, popularly known as the Bullet Train Project.

The corporation uses advanced Japanese Shinkansen technology and aims to transform India’s railway infrastructure with world-class safety, speed, and passenger comfort.

NHSRCL Recruitment 2026 Vacancy Details

A total of 237 Technician vacancies have been announced across various technical disciplines.

Trade Vacancies
Electrical Technician 77
Signalling & Telecom Technician 63
Rolling Stock Technician Various Posts
Civil / Track Technician Various Posts
Other Technical Trades Remaining Posts

The vacancies cover multiple technical trades including:

  • Electrical
  • Civil/Track
  • Rolling Stock
  • Signalling & Telecom
  • Mechanic
  • Electrician
  • Welder
  • Surveyor
  • Draftsman
  • Painter
  • Plumber
  • Other notified trades.

Eligibility Criteria for NHSRCL Recruitment 2026

Candidates must satisfy the eligibility conditions prescribed in the official notification.

Educational Qualification

Applicants should possess:

  • Matriculation (10th Pass)
  • ITI (NCVT/SCVT) in relevant trade OR
  • Diploma in relevant Engineering discipline

Experience Requirement

Candidates must have:

  • Minimum 2 years of post-qualification experience
  • Experience should be in Operations & Maintenance (O&M) departments of:
    • Indian Railways
    • Metro Rail
    • Government Railway Organizations
    • Regional Rapid Transit System (RRTS)

Freshers are NOT eligible for this recruitment.

Age Limit

As on June 30, 2026:

  • Maximum Age: 35 Years

Age relaxation will be applicable as per Government of India rules for reserved categories.

NHSRCL Recruitment 2026 Salary

Selected candidates will receive an attractive salary under the NE-2 IDA Pay Scale.

Component Details
Pay Scale ₹35,000 – ₹1,10,000
Pay Level NE-2 (IDA)
Additional Benefits DA, HRA, Medical Benefits, Leave, PF and other allowances as per NHSRCL rules

Application Fee

Category Fee
General / OBC / EWS ₹400
SC / ST Nil
Women Candidates Nil

NHSRCL Recruitment 2026 Selection Process

The National High Speed Rail Corporation Limited (NHSRCL) has designed a transparent and merit-based selection process for the Technician Recruitment 2026. Candidates are selected purely on their performance in the prescribed stages. There is no interview for Technician posts, making the recruitment process straightforward and fair.

1. Computer-Based Test (CBT)

The Computer-Based Test (CBT) is the first and most important stage of the recruitment process. All eligible candidates who successfully submit their applications will be issued an admit card to appear for the online examination.

The CBT assesses a candidate’s technical knowledge, reasoning ability, numerical aptitude, and general awareness. Questions are objective (Multiple Choice Questions), and candidates must select the correct answer from the available options.

Subjects Covered in the CBT

  • General Awareness
  • General Intelligence & Reasoning
  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • English Language
  • Technical/Trade-Specific Knowledge (as per the Technician trade applied for)

Candidates who score above the prescribed cut-off marks will be shortlisted for the next stage of the recruitment process. The CBT score plays the most significant role in determining merit.

2. Document Verification (DV)

Candidates shortlisted based on their CBT performance will be called for Document Verification.

During this stage, NHSRCL verifies the authenticity of all certificates and documents submitted by the candidate. Any discrepancy or submission of false information may lead to immediate cancellation of candidature.

Documents Generally Required

  • Matriculation (10th) Certificate (Proof of Date of Birth)
  • ITI/Diploma/Technical Qualification Certificates
  • Mark Sheets of Educational Qualifications
  • Caste Certificate (SC/ST/OBC-NCL), if applicable
  • EWS Certificate (if applicable)
  • PwBD Certificate (if applicable)
  • Identity Proof (Aadhaar Card, PAN Card, Passport, etc.)
  • Recent Passport Size Photographs
  • Experience Certificate (if applicable)
  • No Objection Certificate (NOC) for Government Employees

Candidates must produce both original documents and self-attested photocopies during verification.

3. Medical Examination

Candidates who successfully complete the document verification process must undergo a Medical Examination.

Since Technician posts involve maintenance and operation of high-speed rail systems, candidates must meet the medical fitness standards prescribed by NHSRCL.

The medical examination generally includes:

  • General Physical Examination
  • Vision Test (Eyesight)
  • Hearing Test
  • Blood Pressure Check
  • General Health Assessment
  • Other medical tests as prescribed by the recruiting authority

Candidates declared medically fit will be considered for final appointment.

Final Merit List

The final selection is based on:

  • Performance in the Computer-Based Test (CBT)
  • Successful Document Verification
  • Being declared Medically Fit

Only candidates who clear all three stages will receive the appointment offer.

No Interview

One of the biggest advantages of the NHSRCL Technician Recruitment 2026 is that there is no interview. Selection is entirely merit-based, ensuring equal opportunity for all candidates. This eliminates subjectivity and makes the recruitment process transparent and objective.

Selection Stages at a Glance

  • Stage 1: Computer-Based Test (CBT)
  • Stage 2: Document Verification
  • Stage 3: Medical Examination
  • Final Selection: Based on CBT merit, document verification, and medical fitness (No Interview).

Exam Pattern 

The CBT is expected to assess candidates in the following areas:

  • Technical Trade Knowledge
  • General Awareness
  • Reasoning Ability
  • Basic Mathematics
  • English Language

Candidates should refer to the official notification for the detailed syllabus once released.

Documents Required

Candidates should keep the following documents ready:

  • 10th Mark Sheet
  • ITI/Diploma Certificate
  • Experience Certificate
  • Category Certificate (if applicable)
  • Recent Passport Size Photograph
  • Signature
  • Valid ID Proof
  • Email ID & Mobile Number

How to Apply for NHSRCL Recruitment 2026

Follow these steps to complete the online application:

  1. Visit the official NHSRCL recruitment portal.
  2. Click on Technician Recruitment 2026.
  3. Register using a valid email ID and mobile number.
  4. Fill in all personal, educational, and experience details.
  5. Upload the required documents.
  6. Pay the application fee (if applicable).
  7. Verify all information carefully.
  8. Submit the application form.
  9. Download and print the confirmation page for future reference.

Why Join NHSRCL?

Working with NHSRCL offers several benefits:

  • Central Government PSU Opportunity
  • India’s First Bullet Train Project
  • Excellent Salary Package
  • Career Growth
  • Modern Railway Technology
  • Stable Government Career
  • Professional Training
  • World-Class Infrastructure Exposure

Preparation Tips for NHSRCL CBT

Candidates can improve their chances of success by:

  • Revising ITI/Diploma technical subjects
  • Practicing previous technical objective questions
  • Improving Reasoning and Aptitude
  • Reading current affairs regularly
  • Solving mock tests
  • Managing time effectively during practice

Conclusion

The NHSRCL Recruitment 2026 presents an excellent opportunity for experienced technicians seeking a career in India’s landmark Bullet Train Project. With 237 vacancies, an attractive salary of up to ₹1.10 lakh, and a transparent selection process without an interview, eligible candidates should apply before August 5, 2026. Ensure that you meet the experience and qualification requirements, prepare well for the CBT, and keep all required documents ready before submitting your online application.

AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026: Walk-in Interview for 50 Senior Resident Posts

AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026

The AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026 notification has been released for 50 Senior Resident (SR) vacancies under the Government of India Residency Scheme. Candidates possessing MD/MS/DNB qualifications in relevant specialties can attend the walk-in interview scheduled on 04 August 2026. This recruitment offers an excellent opportunity for qualified medical professionals seeking a career in one of India’s premier healthcare institutions. The selected candidates will receive Level-11 Pay Matrix (₹67,700 per month) along with Non-Practicing Allowance (NPA) and other Central Government benefits.

Manabadi is one of India’s trusted education and recruitment portals, providing the latest updates on government jobs, AIIMS recruitment notifications, admit cards, results, answer keys, counselling schedules, university admissions, and examination alerts. Candidates can regularly visit Manabadi for timely and authentic recruitment updates.

AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026 Overview

Particular Details
Organization All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Gorakhpur
Recruitment Name AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026
Post Name Senior Resident (SR)
Total Vacancies 50 Posts
Job Location Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh
Advertisement Year 2026
Interview Mode Walk-in Interview
Interview Date 04 August 2026
Qualification MD/MS/DNB in Relevant Specialty
Age Limit Maximum 45 Years
Salary ₹67,700 + NPA + Central Government Allowances
Selection Process Walk-in Interview + Document Verification
Official Website AIIMS Gorakhpur
Application Mode Offline (Walk-in)

AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026 Important Dates

Event Date
Notification Release 01 August 2026
Walk-in Interview 04 August 2026
Document Verification Same Day
Result Declaration To be notified by AIIMS

About AIIMS Gorakhpur

The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS), Gorakhpur is one of the prestigious medical institutes established by the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India, under the Pradhan Mantri Swasthya Suraksha Yojana (PMSSY). The institute was created to improve access to quality tertiary healthcare services and advanced medical education in Eastern Uttar Pradesh.

AIIMS Gorakhpur is equipped with modern healthcare infrastructure, experienced faculty, research facilities, advanced laboratories, and specialized departments. Every year, the institute conducts recruitment for Faculty, Senior Residents, Junior Residents, Nursing Officers, Group B & Group C posts, making it one of the most sought-after government medical institutions.

AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026 Vacancy Details

The latest recruitment notification invites applications for:

Post Vacancies
Senior Resident (SR)   50

The vacancies are distributed across multiple clinical departments including Medicine, Surgery, Anaesthesia, Pediatrics, Orthopaedics, ENT, Radiology, Obstetrics & Gynaecology, Emergency Medicine, and other specialties as mentioned in the official notification. Reservation for various categories will be applicable according to Government of India rules.

Educational Qualification

Candidates must possess any one of the following qualifications:

  • MD
  • MS
  • DNB

The qualification should be in the relevant clinical specialty from an institution recognized by the National Medical Commission (NMC).

Applicants must also possess:

  • Valid State Medical Council/NMC Registration
  • Required internship and postgraduate completion certificates wherever applicable.

Age Limit

The maximum age prescribed for the Senior Resident post is:

  • Maximum Age: 45 Years

Age relaxation is available for reserved category candidates as per Government of India norms.

Salary Details

Selected candidates will receive:

Component Details
Pay Level Level-11 (7th CPC)
Basic Pay ₹67,700 per month
NPA Applicable
Other Allowances DA, HRA, TA and other Central Government benefits

The salary package makes this recruitment highly attractive for postgraduate medical professionals

Selection Process

The AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026 Selection Process consists of the following stages:

Walk-in Interview

Candidates need to appear before the selection committee on the scheduled interview date.

Document Verification

Original certificates are verified during the interview.

Documents generally required include:

  • MBBS Degree
  • MD/MS/DNB Degree
  • Medical Registration Certificate
  • Internship Completion Certificate
  • Identity Proof
  • Category Certificate (if applicable)
  • Experience Certificates
  • Passport-size Photographs

Final Merit List

The final selection will be based on:

  • Educational Qualification
  • Interview Performance
  • Document Verification
  • Eligibility Criteria

How to Apply for AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026?

Candidates interested in the AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026 for Senior Resident (SR) posts must complete the application process by following the official walk-in recruitment procedure. Since this recruitment is conducted through a Walk-in Interview, there is no online application submission. Applicants should carefully complete the offline application form and report to the interview venue with all required documents on the scheduled date.

Step 1: Visit the Official AIIMS Gorakhpur Website

First, visit the AIIMS Gorakhpur Official Website and open the Current Recruitment Notices or Current Notices section. Here, you will find the latest Senior Resident Recruitment 2026 notification along with all supporting documents, including the application form and annexures. Candidates are advised to read the notification thoroughly before proceeding to ensure they meet all eligibility conditions.

Step 2: Download the Senior Resident Advertisement

Locate and download the Senior Resident (SR) Advertisement PDF. The notification contains complete details regarding:

  • Total vacancies
  • Department-wise vacancies
  • Educational qualifications
  • Age limit
  • Salary structure
  • Reservation policy
  • Interview schedule
  • Reporting time
  • Venue details
  • Instructions for candidates

Reading the official advertisement carefully will help candidates avoid mistakes during the application process.

Step 3: Download Annexure-I and Annexure-II

Along with the notification, download Annexure-I and Annexure-II, which contain the prescribed application format and other required declarations. Candidates should use only the official forms provided by AIIMS Gorakhpur and ensure that all information entered is accurate and matches the supporting documents.

Step 4: Fill the Offline Application Form Carefully

Complete the application form using clear and accurate information. Candidates should provide details such as:

  • Full Name
  • Date of Birth
  • Category
  • Address
  • Mobile Number
  • Email ID
  • Educational Qualifications
  • Medical Council Registration Number
  • Work Experience (if applicable)
  • Preferred Department/Specialty

Before signing the application form, verify every entry to avoid discrepancies during document verification.

Step 5: Attach Self-Attested Copies of Required Documents

Candidates should attach self-attested photocopies of all supporting documents along with the application form. Generally, the following documents are required:

  • MBBS Degree Certificate
  • MD/MS/DNB Degree Certificate
  • Medical Council Registration Certificate
  • Internship Completion Certificate
  • Class 10 Certificate (Proof of Date of Birth)
  • Category Certificate (SC/ST/OBC/EWS), if applicable
  • PwBD Certificate, if applicable
  • Experience Certificates (if applicable)
  • Recent Passport-size Photographs
  • Valid Photo Identity Proof (Aadhaar Card, PAN Card, Passport, etc.)

Candidates should ensure that all copies are clear, legible, and properly self-attested.

Step 6: Carry Original Certificates for Verification

On the day of the interview, candidates must bring all original documents along with the photocopies submitted. The selection committee will verify the original certificates before allowing candidates to participate in the interview. Failure to produce original documents may result in disqualification from the recruitment process.

Step 7: Report to AIIMS Gorakhpur on the Interview Date

Eligible candidates should report to the AIIMS Gorakhpur campus on 04 August 2026 well before the reporting time mentioned in the official notification. It is advisable to arrive early to complete registration and document verification without any last-minute inconvenience. Candidates reporting late may not be permitted to participate in the walk-in interview.

Step 8: Attend the Walk-in Interview

After successful document verification, candidates will appear before the Selection Committee for the walk-in interview. During the interview, the committee may assess the candidate’s:

  • Clinical knowledge
  • Subject expertise
  • Academic background
  • Professional experience
  • Communication skills
  • Overall suitability for the Senior Resident post

The final selection will be based on eligibility, performance in the interview, and successful verification of original documents.

Important Instructions for Candidates

Before attending the interview, candidates should keep the following points in mind:

  • Carry both original documents and self-attested photocopies.
  • Bring multiple passport-size photographs.
  • Verify that your Medical Council Registration is valid.
  • Reach the venue before the reporting time.
  • Read the official notification carefully for any department-specific instructions.
  • Keep a copy of the filled application form and attached documents for future reference.
  • Regularly check the AIIMS Gorakhpur website for any corrigendum or schedule updates before the interview date.

Previous AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment Updates 2026

Apart from the current Senior Resident recruitment, AIIMS Gorakhpur has also conducted recruitment for:

  • Group B & Group C Non-Faculty Posts
  • Faculty Recruitment
  • Junior Resident Posts
  • Project Staff Recruitment
  • Technical & Administrative Positions

Candidates interested in future opportunities should regularly monitor official recruitment notifications.

Conclusion

The AIIMS Gorakhpur Recruitment 2026 presents an excellent opportunity for postgraduate medical professionals seeking a career in a premier government medical institution. With 50 Senior Resident vacancies, an attractive Level-11 salary, and a walk-in interview on 04 August 2026, eligible candidates should ensure they complete the offline application formalities and attend the interview with all original documents. Aspirants are advised to regularly check the official AIIMS Gorakhpur notices for any corrigendum or schedule updates.

DFS Recruitment 2026: 10,743 Vacancies | Notification Soon

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Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 is expected to become one of the biggest government recruitment drives of 2026. As of 05 August 2026, the official recruitment notification has not yet been released, but the Union Ministry of Home Affairs has approved a proposal to fill 10,743 vacant posts in the Delhi Fire Services (DFS). The detailed recruitment notification is expected to be released shortly through the Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board (DSSSB), which will conduct the online application process for eligible candidates.

Manabadi brings you the latest and verified updates on Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Notification, including expected vacancy details, eligibility, selection process, salary, important dates, application fee, syllabus, physical standards, and direct official links. Bookmark this page to receive every latest update as soon as the official notification is released.

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Overview

Particular Details
Recruitment Name Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026
Department Delhi Fire Services (DFS)
Conducting Authority Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board (DSSSB)
Total Approved Vacancies 10,743 Posts
Notification Status Awaited
Job Location Delhi
Application Mode Online
Official Website Delhi Fire Services / DSSSB
Job Category Delhi Government Jobs

 

Why Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 is Important?

The Delhi Government has initiated one of the largest recruitment plans to strengthen emergency response services across the National Capital Territory.

The recruitment aims to:

  • Fill 10,743 vacant positions
  • Improve emergency fire response
  • Recruit technical, operational and administrative staff
  • Modernize Delhi Fire Services
  • Enhance disaster management capabilities

This recruitment offers an excellent opportunity for 10th Pass, 12th Pass, ITI, Diploma, Graduate and Engineering candidates seeking stable government employment.

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Notification

At present, the official DFS Recruitment 2026 Notification PDF has not been published.

However,

  • Recruitment proposal has received official approval
  • Recruitment Rules are under process
  • DSSSB is expected to release the detailed advertisement soon
  • Online applications will begin after publication of the notification

According to Delhi Fire Services, recruitment for Group B posts is conducted through DSSSB whenever vacancies arise.

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Expected Vacancy Details

Around 13 categories of posts are expected.

Likely vacancies include:

  • Fire Operator
  • Driver
  • Leading Fireman
  • Fireman
  • Station Officer
  • Sub Officer
  • Assistant Station Officer
  • Control Room Staff
  • Clerical Posts
  • Store Keeper
  • Technical Assistant
  • Multi Tasking Staff (MTS)
  • Administrative Staff

The final list of posts and vacancy distribution will be available in the official notification.

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Educational Qualification

Educational qualifications will vary depending on the post.

For MTS

  • 10th Pass

For Driver Posts

  • 10th Pass
  • Heavy Motor Vehicle (HMV) Driving Licence

For Fire Operator / Fireman

  • 12th Pass
  • Physical fitness mandatory

For Station Officer / Sub Officer

  • Graduation
  • Additional technical qualifications (if prescribed)

Candidates should possess all required certificates before the closing date of application.

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Age Limit

Expected age criteria:

Category Age
Minimum Age 18 Years
Maximum Age 27 Years

Age relaxation is expected as per Government of India rules.

  • SC/ST
  • OBC
  • PwBD
  • Ex-Servicemen

will receive relaxation according to official norms.

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Application Fee

Expected application fee:

Category Fee
General ₹100
OBC ₹100
SC Nil
ST Nil
Women Candidates Nil
PwBD Nil

The fee structure will be confirmed in the notification.

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Selection Process

Candidates are expected to undergo multiple stages.

Stage 1 – Computer Based Test (CBT)

Subjects include:

  • General Awareness
  • Reasoning Ability
  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • English Language
  • Hindi Language
  • Basic Computer Knowledge

Stage 2 – Physical Endurance Test (PET)

Applicable for field posts.

Expected tests include:

  • Running
  • High Jump
  • Long Jump
  • Physical Measurements
  • Endurance Test

Stage 3 – Skill Test

Applicable for:

  • Driver Posts
  • Technical Posts

Driving skill test will be mandatory for Driver vacancies.

Stage 4 – Document Verification

Documents include:

  • Educational Certificates
  • Identity Proof
  • Category Certificate
  • Driving Licence
  • Date of Birth Certificate
  • Passport Size Photos

Stage 5 – Medical Examination

Candidates must satisfy the medical standards prescribed by Delhi Fire Services.

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Expected Exam Pattern

Subject Marks
General Awareness 20
General Intelligence & Reasoning 20
Numerical Ability 20
English 20
Hindi 20

Total Marks: 100

Mode: Computer Based Test

Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026 Salary

Expected salary as per 7th CPC.

Approximate pay ranges:

Post Expected Salary
Fire Operator ₹25,500 – ₹81,100
Driver ₹25,500 – ₹81,100
Fireman ₹25,500 – ₹81,100
Station Officer ₹44,900 – ₹1,42,400
Sub Officer ₹35,400 – ₹1,12,400
MTS ₹18,000 – ₹56,900

Additional allowances include:

  • Dearness Allowance (DA)
  • House Rent Allowance (HRA)
  • Transport Allowance
  • Medical Benefits
  • Pension (as applicable)
  • Uniform Allowance

Documents Required

Applicants should keep the following ready:

  • Aadhaar Card
  • Passport Size Photograph
  • Signature
  • Educational Certificates
  • Category Certificate
  • HMV Driving Licence (if applicable)
  • Domicile Certificate (if required)
  • Valid Mobile Number
  • Email ID

How to Apply for Delhi Fire Services Recruitment 2026?

Once applications begin:

  1. Visit the official DSSSB recruitment portal.
  2. Complete One Time Registration (if new user).
  3. Fill the online application form.
  4. Upload photograph and signature.
  5. Upload required certificates.
  6. Pay the application fee.
  7. Submit the application.
  8. Download the confirmation page for future reference.

Preparation Tips

Candidates should start preparing in advance.

Focus on:

  • General Knowledge
  • Reasoning
  • Quantitative Aptitude
  • English Grammar
  • Current Affairs
  • Physical Fitness
  • Running practice
  • Endurance exercises

Why This Recruitment Offers Excellent Career Opportunities

Delhi Fire Services is among India’s most respected emergency response organizations. Employees receive:

  • Government Job Security
  • Attractive Salary
  • Promotion Opportunities
  • Medical Facilities
  • Retirement Benefits
  • Training
  • Uniform & Risk Allowances

 

ADA Project Assistant-1 Recruitment 2026 Notification Out | Apply Online for 111 Vacancies, Eligibility, Salary & Last Date

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ADA Project Assistant-1 Recruitment 2026 Notification

 

Application LINK

A major recruitment opportunity has been announced by the Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), an autonomous body functioning under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India, headquartered in Bangalore. Through Advertisement No. ADA:ADV-138:2026 dated 3rd August 2026, ADA has invited applications from meritorious Indian Nationals for engagement as Project Assistant-1 on a tenure basis. A total of 111 tentative vacancies have been notified across seven engineering disciplines.

This article, brought to you by Manabadi, is built strictly from the official ADA notification and is designed to leave no doubt in the mind of any candidate – every table, eligibility clause, and procedural detail from the source document has been reproduced here in full, along with expanded explanations and frequently asked questions to help applicants navigate the process smoothly.

Students and job aspirants are advised to read this article carefully before beginning the registration process, as ADA has laid out strict qualification and documentation requirements that must be fulfilled precisely.

ADA Project Assistant-1 Recruitment 2026: Overview

Particulars Details
Organisation Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA), Ministry of Defence, Govt. of India
Advertisement No. ADA:ADV-138:2026
Notification Date 03/08/2026
Post Name Project Assistant-1
Total Tentative Vacancies 111
Mode of Engagement Tenure Basis
Registration Mode Online
Official Website ada.gov.in
Registration Start/End Registration open now, closes 13th August 2026, 1700 hrs
Written Test Tentative Dates 16th, 23rd or 30th August 2026
Age Limit 28 years (as on 13th August 2026)
Stipend Rs. 31,000 or Rs. 37,000 per month plus HRA (as per category)
Tenure Initially 2 years, extendable
Job Location Bangalore

It should be noted that ADA has clearly labelled the number of vacancies as “tentative (including anticipated) vacancies,” meaning the final number of positions filled may vary based on actual organisational requirements at the time of selection.

About Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA)

The Aeronautical Development Agency functions under the Ministry of Defence, Government of India, and is engaged in aeronautical design, development, and research programmes. This recruitment drive is being conducted for its Bangalore establishment located at PB No. 1718, Vimanapura Post, Bangalore – 560017. It is reiterated that Manabadi consistently sources and verifies all such recruitment notifications directly from official portals to bring accurate and dependable updates to students and job seekers across Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, and the rest of India.

ADA Project Assistant-1 Vacancy Details: Discipline-Wise Breakup (Table-A)

The complete vacancy distribution, as notified in Table-A of the official advertisement, has been reproduced below. Candidates are strongly advised to check which “Equivalent Engineering Discipline/Branch/Field” applies to their qualification before applying, as ADA has specified acceptable equivalent disciplines against each core branch.

1. Computer Science Engineering – 15 Vacancies

  • Equivalent disciplines accepted: Information Science / Information Technology
  • Tentative vacancies: 15

2. Electronics & Communication Engineering – 20 Vacancies

  • Equivalent disciplines accepted: Electronics / Telecommunication / Electronics & Instrumentation
  • Tentative vacancies: 20

3. Aeronautical Engineering – 10 Vacancies

  • Equivalent disciplines accepted: Aerospace
  • Tentative vacancies: 10

4. Electrical & Electronics Engineering – 20 Vacancies

  • Equivalent disciplines accepted: Electrical / Electrical & Instrumentation / Power Electronics
  • Tentative vacancies: 20

5. Mechanical Engineering – 43 Vacancies

  • Equivalent disciplines accepted: Production / Industrial Production
  • Tentative vacancies: 43 (this is the single largest vacancy block in this recruitment cycle)

6. Metallurgy Engineering – 1 Vacancy

  • Equivalent disciplines accepted: Material Science
  • Tentative vacancies: 01

7. Civil Engineering – 2 Vacancies

  • Equivalent disciplines accepted: Structural
  • Tentative vacancies: 02

Total tentative vacancies across all seven disciplines: 111

It is clarified for students who may be confused about eligibility due to differently named degrees: ADA has explicitly permitted candidates holding degrees in the “equivalent” branches listed above to apply under the corresponding core discipline. For example, a candidate holding a B.Tech in Information Technology is eligible to apply under the Computer Science Engineering category, and a candidate holding a B.Tech in Aerospace Engineering is eligible under the Aeronautical Engineering category.

ADA Project Assistant-1 Eligibility Criteria: Complete Qualification Structure (Explained in Detail)

This is the section where most confusion arises among applicants, since ADA has structured eligibility into two separate qualification tiers for each discipline, each tier tied to a different selection method. Both tiers have been broken down below with full clarity, discipline by discipline.

Eligibility Tier 1 – Selection by “Interview Only”

For candidates falling under this tier, no written test is required; the selection is conducted purely through interview. The qualifying options under this tier are:

  • Option (a): B.E./B.Tech (in First Class) with a Valid GATE Score
  • Option (b): M.E./M.Tech from IIT or NIT
  • Option (c): (applicable only to Computer Science Engineering and Electronics & Communication Engineering disciplines) B.Sc + M.Sc with a valid GATE/NET Score

It is important to note that Option (c) – the B.Sc + M.Sc with GATE/NET route – has been offered by ADA only for Computer Science Engineering and Electronics & Communication Engineering disciplines, and does not appear as an eligibility route for Aeronautical, Electrical & Electronics, Mechanical, Metallurgy, or Civil Engineering disciplines, based strictly on what is listed in the official Table-A.

Eligibility Tier 2 – Selection by “Shortlisting by Written Test Followed by Interview”

Candidates who do not possess a valid GATE score or an M.E./M.Tech from IIT/NIT can still apply under this tier, but they will be required to appear for a written test before being called for interview. The qualifying options under this tier are:

  • Option (d): B.E./B.Tech with M.E./M.Tech (from institutions other than IIT/NIT)
  • Option (e): B.E./B.Tech with 2 years of relevant Experience
  • Option (f): (applicable only to Computer Science Engineering and Electronics & Communication Engineering disciplines) B.Sc + M.Sc with 2 years of relevant experience
  • Option (g): B.E./B.Tech (First Class), with no additional qualification or experience required

This means that even a fresher holding only a B.E./B.Tech degree in First Class, without GATE, without M.Tech, and without work experience, remains eligible to apply – such a candidate will be routed through the written test and interview process under Option (g).

Consolidated Eligibility Table (All Disciplines)

Qualification Route Selection Method Applicable Disciplines
B.E/B.Tech with valid GATE Score Interview only All 7 disciplines
M.E/M.Tech from IIT/NIT Interview only All 7 disciplines
B.Sc + M.Sc with valid GATE/NET Score Interview only Only CSE & ECE
B.E/B.Tech with M.E/M.Tech (non-IIT/NIT) Written Test + Interview All 7 disciplines
B.E/B.Tech with 2 years relevant experience Written Test + Interview All 7 disciplines
B.Sc + M.Sc with 2 years relevant experience Written Test + Interview Only CSE & ECE
B.E/B.Tech (First Class, no other requirement) Written Test + Interview All 7 disciplines

Important clarification on experience: ADA has specifically stated that Part-time experience, Apprenticeship training, Period of training, Teaching Experience, and experience gained as a trainee will not be considered while calculating the number of years of experience for eligibility purposes. Only regular, relevant work experience counts.

ADA Project Assistant-1: Written Examination Pattern

For candidates being evaluated through the written test route, ADA has specified the following:

  • The written exam syllabus will be the same as the GATE syllabus for the respective engineering discipline.
  • The exam will carry negative marking for wrong answers.
  • Candidates have been advised to bring a scientific calculator to the written test.
  • Electronic items such as Mobile Phones, Pen Drives, and Smart Watches are strictly prohibited inside the ADA campus/venue during the written test.

Since the syllabus mirrors GATE, candidates who have already prepared for GATE in their respective discipline (Computer Science, Electronics & Communication, Aeronautical, Electrical & Electronics, Mechanical, Metallurgy, or Civil Engineering) will find this written test pattern familiar and should revise their core GATE-level concepts accordingly.

ADA Project Assistant-1: Age Limit

The upper age limit for all candidates has been fixed at 28 years. Age relaxation is permissible for candidates belonging to SC/ST/OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) categories, as per applicable government rules.

The date for determining both qualification and age eligibility has been fixed as the closing date of registration, i.e., 13th August 2026. This means candidates must ensure they meet the age criterion, and possess (or will possess) the required qualification, as on this specific date.

ADA Project Assistant-1: Stipend and Tenure Details

Stipend Structure

Candidate Category Monthly Stipend
Candidates having only B.E./B.Tech (First Class) Rs. 31,000/- per month plus HRA as per rules
All other candidates (i.e., those with M.E./M.Tech, GATE score, NET score, or relevant experience) Rs. 37,000/- per month plus HRA as per rules

This structure indicates that candidates possessing an additional qualification (such as M.E./M.Tech), a valid GATE/NET score, or relevant work experience will be placed in the higher stipend bracket of Rs. 37,000/- plus HRA, while those qualifying purely on the basis of a First Class B.E./B.Tech degree (Option g) will receive Rs. 31,000/- plus HRA.

Tenure of Engagement

The engagement will initially be for a period of two years. This tenure may be extended for a further two-year period, granted one year at a time, and such extension will be subject to satisfactory performance as assessed by a Review Committee constituted by ADA.

Candidates must note that this is strictly a tenure-based engagement and, as clarified explicitly by ADA in the general conditions, confers no right whatsoever – implicit or explicit – for continuation beyond the tenure period, or for absorption, or for regularisation within ADA.

ADA Project Assistant-1: Registration Process, Dates & Venue

Key Dates

Event Date
Notification Released 03/08/2026
Online Registration Closes 13th August 2026, up to 1700 hrs
Written Test (Tentative) 16th August 2026, or 23rd August 2026, or 30th August 2026

It is clarified that the exact written test date among the three tentative options will depend on the number of candidates who register, and this decision, along with the schedule for the Interview, will be published separately on the ADA website. Candidates are advised by ADA itself to frequently visit the official ADA website for such updates, since no separate individual communication may be guaranteed for every scheduling update.

Venue

Both the written test and the interview will be conducted in Bangalore, at the ADA premises or a venue notified subsequently by ADA.

How to Register

  1. Candidates must visit the official website: https://ada.gov.in
  2. Complete the online registration process before 13th August 2026, 1700 hrs.
  3. Candidates must report for the Written Test/Interview with:
    • The duly filled application form (format provided by ADA)
    • Original certificates and supporting documents
    • Self-attested copies of certificates/supporting documents

It has been explicitly clarified by ADA that “Registration is not application” – meaning simply registering online does not complete the process. Candidates are required to plan their logistics properly and must carry the duly filled physical application form along with all relevant original and self-attested documents at the time of reporting for the written test/interview.

ADA Project Assistant-1: Documents Required at the Time of Interview/Written Test

Based strictly on the general conditions listed in the official notification, candidates must carry the following at the time of interview:

  • Duly filled Application Form (as per the format provided by ADA)
  • Attested copies of certificates/supporting documents related to qualification, experience, and caste
  • A recent passport-size photograph, to be affixed on the right top corner of the first page of the application
  • If any certificate/document is in a language other than English, a duly self-attested English transcript of the same must be attached
  • All original certificates/supporting documents, for verification purposes
  • No Objection Certificate (NOC) – mandatory only for candidates presently employed in a Government department, PSU, or Autonomous Body
  • Original Aadhar Card

ADA Project Assistant-1: General Conditions and Important Instructions

The following conditions have been laid down by ADA and must be carefully understood by every applicant:

  • Only Indian Nationals are eligible to apply.
  • The engagement is purely on a Tenure basis and does not confer any right to continuation, absorption, or regularisation in ADA, whether implied or explicit.
  • ADA has reserved the right to operate the selection panel in a flexible manner across different disciplines, based on both the currently notified vacancies and future anticipated vacancies, for a period of six months from the process.
  • The qualification and age of a candidate will be assessed as on the closing date of registration, i.e., 13th August 2026.
  • Presently employed candidates in Government departments/PSUs/Autonomous Bodies must produce an NOC from their current employer at the time of interview.
  • Carrying electronic items (Mobile Phones, Pen Drives, Smart Watches, etc.) is strictly prohibited inside the ADA campus/venue for the written test.
  • No TA/DA (Travelling Allowance/Dearness Allowance) will be admissible for attending the interview/written test, irrespective of whether the candidate is selected or not.
  • Any misrepresentation or falsification of facts, detected at any stage of the selection process or even after selection, or any instance of misconduct/misbehaviour at any stage, will lead to cancellation of candidature without prior notice, along with suitable legal action. No correspondence will be entertained regarding such cancellations.
  • Part-time experience, apprenticeship training, training periods, teaching experience, or trainee experience will not be counted while calculating the number of years of relevant experience.
  • Candidates are advised to frequently visit the ADA website for updates regarding schedules and announcements.

ADA Project Assistant-1 Application Form: Fields to be Filled

The application form format has been provided by ADA along with the notification. It is a two-page form requiring the following details, all of which have been marked mandatory:

Page 1:

  • Engagement Discipline (as per Table-A, Column B & C)
  • Criteria (as per Table-A, Column E)
  • Full Name in Block Letters (as per 10th Marksheet)
  • Father’s Name
  • Gender (Male/Female)
  • Category (Gen/SC/ST/OBC-NCL)
  • Date of Birth
  • Nationality
  • Correspondence Address
  • Permanent Address
  • Mobile Number
  • Email ID
  • Aadhar Number
  • Educational Qualification table (from 10th Standard onwards), covering: Examination Passed, Subject(s), Board/University, Month & Year of Passing, Division/Class/Grade, and Percentage(%)/CGPA – with self-attested copies of Marksheet/Certificate to be enclosed

Page 2:

  • Relevant Experience table (if any), covering: Name of Post/Designation, Name of the Organization/Dept, Period of Service (From-To), and Total Period of Experience (in YY/MM format) – proof to be enclosed
  • Details of Valid NET/GATE table, covering: Year, Score, Marks, Rank, Registration Number, and Validity — proof to be enclosed
  • A signed Declaration stating that the furnished particulars are correct and that concealment/distortion of information will lead to summary termination of the Project Assistantship without prior notice
  • Date, Place, Signature, and Name of the candidate
  • A space for affixing a recent passport-size photograph on the right top corner of the first page

Candidates should note that a passport-size photograph must be affixed on the application form, and this photograph requirement is separate from any photograph uploaded during the online registration process.

Why This Recruitment Matters for Engineering Graduates

With 111 tentative vacancies spread across seven core engineering disciplines, and with Mechanical Engineering alone accounting for 43 posts (the largest single share), this ADA recruitment drive represents a significant opportunity for engineering graduates and postgraduates across the country, including students from Andhra Pradesh and Telangana who regularly follow Manabadi for updates on Defence and PSU recruitment. The dual-track eligibility structure – allowing both GATE/M.Tech-qualified candidates to skip the written exam via direct interview, and fresh B.E./B.Tech graduates to compete via the written test route – ensures a wide pool of eligible applicants across experience levels.

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) – ADA Project Assistant-1 Recruitment 2026

Q1. What is the last date to register for ADA Project Assistant-1 Recruitment 2026?
The online registration closes on 13th August 2026, at 1700 hrs.

Q2. How many total vacancies have been announced?
A total of 111 tentative (including anticipated) vacancies have been announced across seven engineering disciplines.

Q3. Which discipline has the highest number of vacancies?
Mechanical Engineering has the highest number of vacancies, with 43 tentative posts.

Q4. Which discipline has the lowest number of vacancies?
Metallurgy Engineering has the lowest number, with only 1 tentative vacancy.

Q5. Is GATE score mandatory to apply?
No. A valid GATE score is not mandatory. Candidates without a GATE score can still apply if they hold an M.E./M.Tech (Option d), have 2 years of relevant experience (Options e/f), or simply hold a First Class B.E./B.Tech degree (Option g) — though these candidates will go through the written test and interview route rather than the interview-only route.

Q6. What is the age limit for this recruitment?
The age limit is 28 years, with relaxation applicable for SC/ST/OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) candidates as per rules, calculated as on 13th August 2026.

Q7. What will be the stipend for selected candidates?
Candidates with only a B.E./B.Tech (First Class) will receive Rs. 31,000/- per month plus HRA, while all other candidates (with M.Tech/GATE/NET/experience) will receive Rs. 37,000/- per month plus HRA.

Q8. What is the syllabus for the written test?
The written test will follow the same syllabus as GATE for the respective discipline, and will include negative marking for wrong answers.

Q9. Where will the written test and interview be conducted?
Both will be conducted in Bangalore, at a venue to be notified on the ADA website.

Q10. What are the tentative written test dates?
The tentative dates are 16th August, 23rd August, or 30th August 2026, with the final date depending on the number of registered candidates.

Q11. Will this job lead to a permanent position in ADA?
No. ADA has clearly stated that the engagement is tenure-based only and does not confer any right to continuation, absorption, or regularisation in ADA.

Q12. What is the initial tenure of engagement, and can it be extended?
The initial tenure is two years, extendable by a further two years, one year at a time, subject to satisfactory performance as assessed by a Review Committee.

Q13. Can candidates from equivalent branches apply?
Yes. ADA has listed equivalent disciplines for each core branch — for example, Information Science/Information Technology graduates can apply under Computer Science Engineering, and Aerospace graduates can apply under Aeronautical Engineering.

Q14. Is work experience mandatory to apply?
No, work experience is not mandatory. A First Class B.E./B.Tech degree alone (Option g) is sufficient to apply, though such candidates will be routed through the written test and interview.

Q15. Does teaching or apprenticeship experience count toward the 2-year experience requirement?
No. ADA has clearly excluded part-time experience, apprenticeship training, training periods, teaching experience, and trainee experience from being counted toward the required years of relevant experience.

Q16. Are electronic devices allowed at the exam venue?
No. Mobile phones, pen drives, and smart watches are strictly prohibited inside the ADA campus/venue during the written test.

Q17. Is TA/DA provided for attending the interview or written test?
No. ADA has clearly stated that no TA/DA will be admissible, irrespective of the outcome of selection.

Q18. Do currently employed government candidates need any special document?
Yes. Candidates presently employed in a Government department, PSU, or Autonomous Body must produce a No Objection Certificate (NOC) from their employer at the time of interview.

Q19. Is online registration itself considered as application submission?
No. ADA has clarified that “Registration is not application.” Candidates must also carry the duly filled physical application form along with all supporting original and self-attested documents at the time of reporting for the written test/interview.

Q20. What happens if a candidate is found to have furnished false information?
Any misrepresentation or falsification of facts, detected at any stage, will result in cancellation of candidature without notice, along with suitable legal action, and no correspondence will be entertained in this regard.

Conclusion

The ADA Project Assistant-1 Recruitment 2026 offers a substantial number of openings – 111 tentative vacancies – for engineering graduates across Computer Science, Electronics & Communication, Aeronautical, Electrical & Electronics, Mechanical, Metallurgy, and Civil Engineering disciplines. Eligible candidates are strongly advised to complete their online registration well before the 13th August 2026, 1700 hrs deadline, and to prepare their application forms and supporting documents in advance, given the strict documentation requirements outlined by ADA. Manabadi will continue to track this recruitment closely and bring further updates on the written test schedule, interview dates, and any additional notifications released by ADA on its official website, so that students never miss a critical update in their career journey. Stay connected with Manabadi for verified, timely, and detailed coverage of this and other recruitment and admission opportunities.

NTPC Recruitment 2026 Notification : Apply Online for Executive & Assistant Posts at Manabadi

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National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC) has released notifications for various executive and trainee posts for 2026. Candidates looking for central government PSU job opportunities can check the complete recruitment details below, including eligibility criteria, vacancy breakdown, salary details, selection process, and step-by-step application procedures.

Quick Highlights & Overview

Particulars Details
Recruiting Organization National Thermal Power Corporation Limited (NTPC)
Name of Posts Assistant Executive (Operation), Engineers, Executive Trainees (EET)
Total Vacancies 250+ (Varies by notification)
Category PSU Recruitment / Central Govt Jobs
Application Mode Online
Selection Process Shortlisting / Screening, Written/GATE Score, Interview
Official Website careers.ntpc.co.in / ntpc.co.in

Important Dates

Event Dates / Status
Notification Release Date Released Officially
Online Application Start Date Check Active Cycles on Official Portal
Last Date to Submit Online Form Varies by Post Code / Drive
Admit Card Release Date 7–10 days before the exam
Exam Date / Interview Date To Be Announced

NTPC Vacancy Details 2026

NTPC conducts recruitment drives across multiple engineering disciplines and operational roles. The current active drives feature the following category-wise distributions:

Assistant Executive (Operation) – 250 Posts

Category Vacancy Count
UR (General) 109
OBC (Non-Creamy Layer) 42
SC 35
ST 39
EWS 25
Total 250

(Note: Additional posts for Engineer (Contracts & Materials) and Special Drive EET roles are also released periodically on the portal).

Eligibility Criteria

1. Educational Qualification

  • Assistant Executive / Engineers: B.E. / B.Tech Degree in Mechanical, Electrical, Civil, or relevant engineering disciplines from a recognized university/institution. Minimum required aggregate marks: 40% to 65% depending on the specific post.

  • Work Experience: Minimum 1 year of post-qualification experience in operation/maintenance of thermal/power plants (capacity 40 MW or above) for Assistant Executive positions.

  • Executive Trainees (GATE Based): Full-time B.E./B.Tech degree along with a valid GATE Scorecard.

2. Age Limit & Relaxations

  • Upper Age Limit: 30 to 35 Years (varies according to the post).

  • Upper Age Relaxation:

Category Relaxation Permissible
OBC (NCL) 3 Years
SC / ST 5 Years
PwBD 10 Years
Ex-Servicemen As per Central Govt. Rules

 

Pay Scale & Remuneration

  • Assistant Executive (Fixed-Term Basis): Fixed monthly consolidated pay of ₹55,000/- + HRA/Company Accommodation, Night Shift Allowance, and Medical Benefits.

  • Executive Trainees (EET): Basic Pay scale of ₹40,000 – ₹1,40,000/- (E-1 grade) plus DA, IDA, allowances, and statutory benefits upon absorption.

Application Fee

Category Fee Amount
General / OBC / EWS ₹500/-
SC / ST / PwBD / XSM / Female Exempted (NIL)
  • Payment Mode: Online via Net Banking, Credit Card, Debit Card, or UPI.

Selection Process

  1. Shortlisting / Screening: Applications are filtered based on essential educational qualifications, GATE scores, or post-qualification work experience.

  2. Written Test / Online Examination: Candidates may be required to take a Computer-Based Test (CBT) covering technical knowledge and aptitude.

  3. Personal Interview: Shortlisted candidates appear for a personal interview round.

  4. Document Verification & Medical Exam: Final appointment is subject to background verification and fitness standard clearance as per NTPC medical norms.

How to Apply Online for NTPC Recruitment 2026

  1. Visit the official NTPC careers web portal at careers.ntpc.co.in.

  2. Go to the “Careers / Jobs” section on the homepage.

  3. Locate the notification link for the preferred post (e.g., Advt No. NTPC Assistant Executive / Engineer 2026).

  4. Click on “Apply Online” and complete the initial registration using a valid Email ID and Mobile Number.

  5. Fill out the application form with personal, educational, and experience details.

  6. Upload required scanned documents (Photographs, Signature, Degree Certificates, Experience Certificates, GATE Scorecard if applicable).

  7. Pay the application fee using the integrated online payment gateway (if applicable).

  8. Submit the application form and download/print the acknowledgment slip for future reference.

Important Links

Link Description Direct Link
NTPC Official Website ntpc.co.in
NTPC Official Careers Portal careers.ntpc.co.in
Online Application Portal Apply Online Here

 

Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)

Q1: What is the salary offered for NTPC Assistant Executive posts?

A: Selected candidates receive a consolidated monthly remuneration of ₹55,000/-. In addition, company accommodation/HRA, medical benefits, and night shift allowances are provided as per NTPC rules.

Q2: Is prior work experience required to apply for NTPC Recruitment 2026?

A: Yes, for posts such as Assistant Executive (Operations), candidates must have at least 1 year of post-qualification experience in the operation or maintenance of a thermal power plant with an installed capacity of 40 MW or above.

Q3: What is the upper age limit for NTPC 2026 recruitment drives?

A: The maximum age limit is generally 35 years for Assistant Executive posts. Category-based relaxations apply as per Government of India rules (3 years for OBC, 5 years for SC/ST, and 10 years for PwBD).

Q4: Who is exempted from paying the NTPC application fee?

A: Female candidates, as well as applicants belonging to SC, ST, PwBD, and Ex-Servicemen categories, are fully exempted from paying the application fee. Candidates from General, OBC, and EWS categories need to pay ₹500/-.

Q5: What is the nature of employment for Assistant Executive roles?

A: The appointment is on a Fixed-Term Employment basis for an initial period of 3 years. Based on performance and organizational requirement, the contract can be extended for up to an additional 2 years.

Conclusion

The NTPC Recruitment 2026 drive stands out as an excellent career avenue for qualified engineers seeking roles in India’s leading power sector PSU. With a fixed monthly salary package of ₹55,000/- alongside additional allowances, this notification provides a strong, merit-based career boost. Interested candidates should review the eligibility norms, keep their experience certificates and scanned documents ready, and submit their applications well before the closing date on the official NTPC careers portal (careers.ntpc.co.in).